MCQ OF SOURCES OF ENERGY, CLASS: X

SOURCES OF ENERGY

CLASS: X

1. Solar energy can be used to produce :

(A) electrical energy (B) heat energy (C) mechanical energy (D) all of the above (E) none of these

2. The energy processed by wind is :

(A) kinetic energy (B) potential energy (C) thermal energy (D) sound energy (E) none of these

3. The fuel used in a stream engine is :

(A) water (B) carbon monoxide (C) oxygen (D) none of these

4. A solar cell convert heat and light energy into :

(A) heat energy (B) sound energy (C) electrical energy (D) wind energy. (E) none of these

5. Biogas is a mixture of :

(A) Carbon monoxide , hydrogen gas and methane  (B) Carbon monoxide , hydrogen gas 

(C) Carbon dioxide , hydrogen gas and methane (D) none of these

6. The sources of energy which are being produced continuously in nature and are inexhaustible are called :

(A) conventional sources (B) non-conventional sources (C) non-renewable sources (D) none of these

7. Choose the source of energy which is different from others :

(A) Wood (B) Falling water (C) Wind (D) Petroleum (E) none of these

8. The vast amount of sea weeds present in oceans may provide an endless source of :

(A) hydro energy (B) ocean thermal energy (C) methane (D) none of these

9. Energy available from the oceans is :

(A) OTE (B) sea-waves energy (C) tidal energy (D) all of the above (E) none of these

10. Radiations used to get relief from bodyaches are :

(A) I.R.radiations (B) U.V. radiations (C) Visible radiations (D) None of these

11. Wood is a :

(A) primary fuel (B) liquid fuel (C) processed fuel (D) secondary fuel (E) none of these

12. Which of the following is as example of fossil fuel ?

(A) Coal gas (B) Coke (C) Natural gas (D) Producer gas (E) none of these

13. The device in which the nuclear fission and release of energy is controlled, is known as :

(A) Thermopile (B) Thermostat (C) Nuclear reactor (D) Cloud chamber (E) none of these

14. For a sustained chain reaction, the reproduction factor should be :

(A) 1 (B)  10  (C) infinite  (D)  none of these

15. Role of Moderator  in nuclear reactor for :

(A) slowing neutrons (B) accelerating neutrons (C) stopping neutrons (D) heating the neutrons (E) none of these

16. The fusion reaction occur at :

(A) low pressures (B) low temperature (C) extremely high temperature (D) high temperature and low pressures

17. The source of energy of the sun is :

(A) Nuclear fission (B) Chemical reaction (C) Nuclear fusion (D)  All of these  (E) None of these

18. The number of neutrons in an atom X of atomic number Z and mass number A is :-

(A) zero (B) Z (C) A - Z (D) A (E) none of these

19. When a beta particle is given out, the atomic number of the parent atom :

(A) Increase by unity (B) Decrease by unity (C) Remains the same (D) Is halved

20.. Which have least penetrating power ?

(A) Alpha particles (B) Gamma rays (C) Beta particles (D) All have the same penetrating power (E) none of these

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MCQ OF MAGNETIC EFFECTS & EMI, CLASS: X

MAGNETISM AND EMI

CLASS: X

1. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces :
(A) we will have a single pole on each piece (B) each piece will have two unlike poles
(C) each piece will have two like poles (D) None of these

2. The magnetic field intensity produced due to a current carrying coil is maximum at :
(A) any point (B) any point lying on the axis of the coil (C) points lying between centre of the coil and its circumference (D) none of these

3. The direction of magnetic lines of force produced by passing a direct current in a conductor is :
(A) perpendicular to the conductor & coming outwards
(B) parallel to conductor
(C) surrounding the conductor and of circular nature
(D) perpendicular to the conductor & coming inwards

4. Which of the following statement is not correct about two parallel conductors carrying equal currents in the same direction ?
(A) Every conductors will experience a force. (B) The two conductors will repel each other.
 (C) Each of the conductors will move if not prevented from doing so. (D) none of these

5. Which of the following determine the direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying conductor ?
(A) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction. (B) Fleming’s left-hand rule.
(C) Lenz’s law. (D) Maxwell’s cork screw rule. (E) none of these.

6. If the cylindrical bar magnet is kept along axis and  rotated about its axis, then :
(A) a current will be induced in the coil (B) no current will be induced in the coil. (C) only emf will be induced in the coil (D) am emf and current both will be induced in the coil (E) none of these

7. In the figure QR is a vertical conductor and the current I flows from R to Q. P is a point on the horizontal plane and is to the south of the wire. The direction of the magnetic field at P due to the current will be towards :
(A) upward (B) north (C) east (D) west (E) none of these

8. A length of wire carries steady current. It bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn. The same length is now bent to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field produced at the centre by the same current will be :
(A) a quarter of its first value (B) a half of first value (C) four times its first value (D) unaltered (E) none of these

9. The intensity of a magnetic field is defined as the force experienced by a :
(A) standard compass (B) unit positive charge
(C) unit negative charge (D) unit north pole

10.. A wire carrying a current of 5A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic induction of 2T. The force on each centimeter of the wire is :
(A) 1N (B) 100 (C) 0.1 N (D) 10 N

11. If a soft iron piece is buried under the surface of earth in the north and south direction, then
(A) it will acquire the properties of a magnet (B) its properties will not change
(C) it will behave like an insulator (D) can’t say with surity

12. Force acting on a stationary charge Q in the magnetic field B is -
(A) B Q V (B) BV/Q (C) Zero (D) BQ/V

13. The permanent magnets are kept with soft iron pieces at ends and keepers :
(A) to magnetise the soft iron pieces (B) to increase the strength of the magnets
(C) to avoid self demagnetisation (D) for physical safety of the magnets

14. The device whish is used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called :
(A) electric motor (B) dynamo (C) transformer (D) battery

15. In case of a DC generator a large number of coils each having many turns and arranged in different turns are used :
(A) to get high voltage DC (B) to get high ampere DC
(C) to get smooth DC (D) get pulsating current

16. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservations of :
(A) energy (B) momentum (C) angular momentum (D) charge and mass

17. In a DC generator, the induced e.m.f. in the armature is :
(A) DC (B) AC` (D) fluctuating DC (D) both AC and DC

18. The induced emf produced when a magnet is inserted into a coil does not depend upon :
(A) the number of turns in the coil (B) the magnetic moment of the magnet
(C) the magnetic moment of the magnet (D) all of these  (E) none of these

19. When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current :
(A) is a constant and in the direction of inducing current
(B) is a constant and is opposite to the direction of inducing current
(C) increases with time and is in the direction of inducing current
(D) increases with time and opposite to the direction of inducing current

20. The device whish is used for converting electrical energy into mechanical energy is called :
(A) electric (B) dynamo (C) transformer (D) battery

21.The current in the armature of a dc motor is maximum when :
(A) the motor achieves maximum speed (B) the motor achieves intermediate speed
(C) the motor is switched on (D) the motor is switched off

22. The effect of using split rings in a simple DC motor is that :
(A) the direction of rotation of the coil is reversed
(B) the current in the coil always flows in the same direction
(C) the direction of the current flowing in the coil is reversed
(D) None of these

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MCQ OF ELECTRICITY, CLASS: X

ELECTRICITY

CLASS: X

1. How many electrons constitute a current of
(A) 6.25 × 1018 (B) 6.25 × 1012 (C) 6.25 × 1011 (D) 6.25

2. 1 Coulomb is equal to :
(A) 1 amp × 1 sec (B) 1 amp / 1 sec (C) 1 joule × 1 amp (D) 1 joule / 1 sec

3. When a body is negatively charged by fraction, it means :
(A) the body has acquired excess of electrons (B) the body has acquired excess of protons
(C) must be zero (D) many be negative or positive or zero

4. If a charged body attracts another body, the charge on the other body :
(A) must be negative (B) must be positive
(C) must be zero (D) may negative or positive or zero

5. A suitable unit for expressing the strength of electric field is :
(A) V/C (B) C/m (C) N/C (D) C/N

6. One ampere equal ____________

7. What constituted current in a metal wire ?
(A) Electrons (B) Protons (C) Atoms (D) Molecules

8. If I is the current through a wire and e is the charge of electron, then the number of electrons in t seconds
will be given by-
(A)Ie/t  (B) e/lt (C) lt/e (D) lte

9. Conventionally, the direction of the current is taken as -
(A) the direction of flow of negative charges (B) the direction of flow of atoms
(C) the direction of flow of positive charges (D) the direction of flow of molecules

10. When the temperature of metallic conductor is increased its resistance :
(A) always decrease (B) always increase
(C) may increase or decease (D) remain the same

11. Specific residence of a wire depends upon :
(A) its length (B) its cross - sectional area (C) its dimensions (D) its material  (E) none of these

12. The unit of resistivity is :
(A) ohm (B) ohm meter (C) ohm /meter (D) none of these

13. A wire of resistance R is cut into t equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of combination will be :
(A) tR (B) R/t (C) t/R (D) none of these

14 A piece of wire having resistance 4 ohm is bent through 180 at its mid point and the two halves are twisted together, then resistance is :
(A) 1 ohm  (B) 2 ohm (C) 5 ohm (D) 8 ohm  (E) none of these

15. Three resistance each of 8 ohm are connected to a triangle. The resistance between any two terminal will be:
(A) 12 ohm (B) 2 ohm  (C) 6 ohm  (D) 3/16 ohm (E) none of these

16. In how many parts(equal) a wire of 100 ohm be cut so that a resistance of 1ohm is obtained by connecting them in parallel ?
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) 100 (D) 50  (E) none of these

17. The filament of an electric bulb is made of tungsten because :
(A) its melting point is high (B) it is cheaper (C)its resistance is negligible   (D) its filament is easily made (E) none of these

18. If a wire of resistance 1 ohm is stretched to double its length, then the resistance will become :
(A) ½ ohm  (B) 2 ohm (C) ¼ ohm (D) 4 ohm  (E) none of these

19. Rate of heat generated by electrical current in a resistive circuit is expressed in :
(A) IR^2 (B) IR (C) I^2R (D) IR  (E) none of these

20. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel with a battery. They ratio of heat produced in the two cases in :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4 (E) none of these

21. How much electrical energy in kilowatt hour is consumed in operating ten, 50 watt bulbs for 10 hours per day in a month of 30 days ?
(A) 15 (B) 150 (C) 1500 (D) 15000 (E) none of these

22. An electric iron draws a current of 4A when connected to a 220 V mains. Its resistance must be :
(A) 40 ohm  (B) 55 ohm (C) 100 ohm (D) None of these (E) none of these

23. The resistance of a conductors is reduced to half its initial value. In during so the heating effects in the conductor will become :
(A) half (B) one-fourth (C) four times (D) double  (E) none of these

24. Laws of heating are given by :
(A) Faraday (B) Joule (C) Ohm (D) Maxwell

25. An electric iron is based upon the principle of :
(A) magnetic effect of current (B) heating effect of current
(C) chemical effect of current (D) none of these

26. A fuse wire is always connected to the :
(A) neutral wire (B) earth wire (C) live wire (D) none of these  (E) none of these

27. Heating effete of a current conductor is due to :
(A)  Attraction between electrons and atoms (B) Loss of kinetic energy of moving electrons
(C)  Loss of kinetic energy of moving atoms (D) Repulsion between electrons and atoms  (E) none of these

28. The wire having a red plastic covering is a :
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) earth wire  (D) all of these (E) none of these

29. A switch is always connected to the
(A) earth wire (B) neutral wire (C) live wire (D) all of these (E) none of these

30. The wire having a black plastic covering is a
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) earth wire (D) all of these (E) none of these

31. The wire having a green plastic covering is a
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) earth wire (D)all of these (E) none of these

32. In three pin socket (shoe) the bigger hole is connected to :
(A) any wire (B) live wire (C) neutral wire (D) earth wire (E) none of these

33. Coming of live wire and neutral wire in direct contact cause :
(A) short-circuiting (B) over loading (C) no damage (D) unknown effect (E) none of these

34. In electric fitting in a house :
(A)  the earth wire goes through the switch (B) the neutral wire goes through the switch
(C) the live wire goes through the switch (D) no wire goes through the switch  (E) none of these

35. High power electrical appliances are earthed to
(A) avoid shock (B) avoid wastage (C) Make the appliance look beautiful (D) unknown effect (E) none of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF HUMAN EYE, CLASS: X

HUMAN EYE

CLASS: X

1. The focal length of eye lens controlled by-
(A) Iris (B) Cornea (C) Ciliary muscles (D) Optic nerve

2. A white lights falls on a glass prism, the least deviated colour is -
(A) Violet (B) Orange (C) Red (D) Yellow

3. Blue colour of sky is due to -
(A) dispersion of light (B) scattering of light (C) refraction of light (D) reflection of light

4. Rainbow is formed due to -
(A) reflection and dispersion of light through a water droplet
(B) Total internal reflection, refraction and dispersion of light through a water droplet
(C) only dispersion of light
(D) only refraction of light

5. Power of accommodation (max. variation in power of eye lens) of a normal eye is about -
(A) 1D (B) 2D (C) 3D (D) 4D

6. Dispersion of light by a prism is due to the change in -
(A) frequency of light (B) speed of light (C) scattering (D) none of these

7. Least distance of distinct vision of a long-sighted man is 40 cm. He wish to reduce it to 25 cm by using a lens. Then the focal length of the lens is -
(A)  200/3  (B) – 200/3  (C) + 200 cm (D) – 200 cm

8. Which of the following colour has the least wave length ?
(A) red (B) orange (C) violet (D) Blue

9. Convex lens of suitable focal length can correct -
(A) short sightedness (B) long sightedness (C) presbyopia (D) astigmatism

10. The focal length of human eye lens is -
(A) 2.5 cm (C) 25 cm (C) 25m (D) none of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF LIGHT, CLASS: X

LIGHT

CLASS: X

1. The path along which light travels in a homogenous medium is called the :
(A) beam of light (B) ray of light (C) pencil of light (D) none of these

2. A thin layer of water is transparent but a very thick layer of water is :
(A) translucent (B) opaque (C) most transparent (D) none of these

3. Air is not visible because it _
(A) is nearly a perfectly transparent substance
(B) neither absorbs nor reflects light
(C) transmits whole of light
(D) all the above are correct

4. According to laws of reflection of light :
(A) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
(B) Angle of incidence is less than the angle or reflection
(C) Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection
(D) None of these

5. A swimming pool appears to be 2m deep. It actual depth is ( refractive index for water = 1.33)-
(A) 2.66 m (B) 2m (C) 2.34 m (D) 2.54 m

6 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle x  and the angle between the incident and reflected rays is 65, what is the value of x :
(A) 32.5 (B) 35 (C) 45 (D) None of these

7. When a ray of light enters a transparent medium it undergoes change is :
(A) Frequency only (B) Wavelength only (C) Wavelength and velocity both (D) Velocity and frequency both

8. The focal length of a concave mirror is f m  and the distance from the object to the principal focus is a m. The magnitude of magnification obtained will be-
(A) (f + a)/f (B) f/a (C) f / a (D) f2/a2

9. The magnification of an object placed 10 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm will be.
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) infinity

10. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. the position of the object should be-
(A) between the focus and the centre of curvature.
(B) at the centre of curvature
(C) beyond the centre of curvature
(D) between the pole of the mirror and the focus

11. The magnification produces by a concave mirror-
(A) is always more the one
(B) is always less than one
(C) is always equal to one
(D) may be less than or greater than one

12. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of the object should be :
(A) Beyond C (B) Between C and F (C) At C (D) At F

13. A boy is standing in front of a place mirror at a distance of 3 m from it. What is the distance between the boy and his image ?
(A) 3 m (B) 4.5 m (C) 6 m (D) none of these

14. Refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5 and refractive index of water with respect to air is 3/4  What will be the refractive index of glass w.r.t water ?
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.125 (D) -10

15. The refractive index of a medium depends upon -
(A) Nature of material of the medium
(B) Optical density of the medium
(C) Wavelength of light
(D) All of these

16. A ray of light in incident normally on a rectangular piece of glass. The value of angle of refraction will be-
(A) 1800 (B) 900 (C) 450 (D) 00

17. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of the circle is -
(A) 12 × 3 × 5 cm (B) 12 × 3 × 7 cm (C) 12 × 5 / 2 cm (D) None of these

18. The speed of light is vacuum is 3.0 ×108 m/s. If the refractive index of a transparent liquid is 4/3, then the speed of light in the liquid is -
(A) 2.25 × 108 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s (C) 4 × 108 m/s (D) 4.33 × 108 m/s

19. 1. To get a real and inverted image of the same size as that the object should be placed in front of the convex lens at:
(A) F (B) 2F  C) between F and 2F (D) away from 2F, where F is focal length

20. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens have each focal length of - 10cm. The mirror and lens are :
(A) both convex (B) both concave (C) mirror is convex and lens is concave (D) mirror is concave and lens is convex

21. The power of lens having focal length 50 cm is :
(A) 1/2 D (B) 2D (C) 3D (D) 0.2 D

22. The focal length of a lens of power - 2.0 D is :
(A) -2.0 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.5 m

23. Two lenses of +5D and -5D are placed in chose contact. The focal length of the combination is :
(A) Zero (B) infinity (C) Zero or infinity  (D) None of these

24 A student needs a lens of power -2.0 dioptre to correct his distant vision. The focal length of the given lens is :
(A) + 50 cm (B) -50 cm (C) 10 cm (D) -10 cm

25. Focal length of coloured goggles (without number) is :
(A) zero (B) infinity (C) between zero & infinity (D) None of these

26. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of very large size is obtained, using a convex lens ?
(A) At the focus (B) At 2F (C) Between F & 2F (D) Beyond 2F

27. A convex lens is :
(A) Thicker at the middle, thinner at the edges
(B) Diverging
(C) Thicker at the edges thinner in the middle
(D) Of uniform thickness everywhere

28. A glass rod of refractive index 1.42 is immersed in kerosene. The refractive index of kerosene is 1.42. Then the rod will :
(A) appear bent (B) appear raised above the liquid
(C) become invisible (D) none of the above

29. The power of a lens whose focal length is 25 cm is :
(A) 4 Dioptre (B) 25 Dioptre (C) 0.04 Dioptre (D) 2.5 Dioptre

30. A thin lens is made with a material having refractive index n = 1.5. Both the side are convex. It is dipped in water ( n = 1.33), it will be have like :
(A) a convergent lens (B) a divergent lens
(C) a rectangular slab (D) a prism

31. Choose the correct option :
(A) If the final rays are converging, we have a real image.
(B) If the incident rays are converging, we have a real image.
(C) If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.
(D) The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image.

32. A convex lens forms a real image of a point object placed on its principal axis. If the upper half on the lens is painted black :
(A) the image will be shifted backward
(B) the image will not be shifted
(C) the intensity of the image will decrease
(D) both (B) & (C)

33. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens of focal length ƒ is :
(A) ƒ (B) 2ƒ (C) 3ƒ` (D) 4ƒ

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES, CLASS: 9TH

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES

CLASS: IX

1. Which one of the following includes only macronutrients?
(A) C,N, Ca
(B) H, Fe, P
(C) O, K, Cl
(D) K, S, Zn

2. Transfer of seedling from the nurseries to the main field is termed as
(A) weeding
(B) sowing
(C) transplantation
(D) ploughing

3. The unwanted wild plants growing alonwith the crop plants are called
(A) weeds
(B) seedling
(C) minor crops
(D) grasses

4. Damp grains in storage gets heated due to
(A) infestation by insects
(B) decrease in humidity
(C) decrease in atmospheric pressure
(D) high moisture content and growth of moulds

5. Green maturing refers to
(A) add green leaves to the soil
(B) grow young and green crops of leguminous plants along with non leguminous
(C) add decomposed organic matter to soil
(D) none of these

6. Vermicomposting involves
(A) earthworm
(B) cockroach
(C) leech
(D) roundworm

7. Improved storage structures include
(A) grain silos
(B) pusa bin
(C) pusa kothar
(D) all of these

8. Weedicides among the following are
(A) 2, 4-D, nitrofen, atrazine
(B) atrazine, BHC, pyrethrum
(C) Pyrethrum, EDB, methyl bromide
(D) 2, 4-D , BHC, EDB

9. Which one of the following does not cause plant diseases?
(A) viruses
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Fungi

10. EDB is a very effective
(A) rodent bait
(B) spraying insecticide
(C) fumigant for killing insects
(D) preservative of food grains

11. The branch of  science that deal with the study of vegetable culture is called as
(A) Agriculture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Olericulture
(D) Floriculture

12. All animals are
(A) Parasitic
(B) saprophytic
(C) autotrophic
(D) heterotrophic

13. The principal cereal crop of India is
(A) wheat
(B) rice
(C) maize
(D) sorghum

14. which is the most important source of food and fodder ?
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Lichen
(D) Cereal

15. The element which is required in largest quantity by plants is
(A) sulphur
(B) calcium
(C) phosphorus
(D) nitrogen

16. Nodules with nitrogen – fixing bacteria are present in
(A) mustard
(B) wheat
(C) gram
(D) cotton

17. Application of nitrogenous manure to a plant causes
(A) vigorous vegetative growth
(B) early flowering
(C) early
(D) growth retardation due to toxicity to NH3

18. Rotation of crops is essential for
(A) getting different kinds of crops
(B) increasing fertility of soil
(C) increasing quality of proteins
(D) increasing quality of minerals

19. The unwanted plants are known as
(A) grasses
(B) shrubs
(C) weeds
(D) fodder crops

20. Plants can be made disease resistant by
(A) breeding
(B) hormones
(C) colchicine
(D) heat

21. Murrah, Surti and Mehsana are the indigenous breeds of
(A) cows
(B) buffaloes
(C) poultry
(D) pigs

22. Inland fisheries is referred to
(A) culturing fish in fresh water
(B) deep sea fisheries
(C) extraction of oil from fishes
(D) capturing fishes from seas

23. chemical used to kill rats and moles is called as
(A) fungicide
(B) nematicide
(C) rodenticide
(D) insecticide

24. Cropping pattern involving a definite pattern of rows is called as
(A) crop rotation
(B) mixed cropping
(C) inter cropping
(D) monoculture

25. cattle food rich in one or more nutrients but lacks fibres is called as
(A) roughage
(B) concentrate
(C) sap
(D) none of these

26. IR36 and Pusa Basmati are high yielding varieties of
 (A) rice
(B) wheat
(C) maize
(D) mustard

27. Honey bee culture is called as
(A) pisciculture
(B) apiculture
(C) sericulture
(D) horticulture

28. Hybridization can be
(A) intervarietal
(B)  intergeneric 
(C)  interspecific
(D) all of these

29. The process of applying fertilizers through drip irrigation is called as
(A) strip farming
(B) fertigation
(C) fumigation
(D) none of these

30. The specific term for poultry used for meat purpose is
(A) layers
(B) broilers
(C) growers
(D)none of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF WHY DO WE FALL ILL & NATURAL RESOURCES, CLASS: 9TH

WHY DO WE FALL ILL & NATURAL RESOURCES

CLASS: IX

1. Health is.
(A) Complete physical well being
(B) social well being
(C)  mental well being
(D) all of the above

2. Dislocation is a disease caused by
(A) Biological agent
(B) mechanical agent
(C) physical agent
(D) none of these

3. A carrier is a human being that
(A) functions as a reservoir of infection
(B) possesses pathogen but is not harmed
(C) contains antibodies sufficient enough to balance the antigen
(D) all of the above

4. Droplet infection is a mode of.
(A) direct transmission
(B) indirect transmission
(C)pathogen spread through mosquitoes
(D) tomite transmission

5. Specific defence mechanism against disease comprises
(A physical barrier
(B) lysozme
 (C) phagocytes
(D) immune system

6. The antigen present in pathogen is
(A) a specific protein or polysaccharide present on its coat
(B) polysaccharide synthesized by it in the host
(C)a specific protein involved in metabolism
(D) either B, or C.

7. Pathogens are destroyed by
(A) kidneys
(B) liver
(C) tonsils
(D) lymphatic tissues

8. A noninfectious unusual and Unnatural  reaction to a substance or condition is
(A) immunity
(B) allergy
(C) infection
(D) toxin

9. AlDS was first reported in.
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Germany

10. If a person has developed interferon in his body. He seems to carry infection of
(A) Tetanus
(B) Malaria
(C) Measles
(D) Typhoid

11. AIDS day.
(A) 1st May
(B) 20th December 
(C) 1st June 
(D) 1st December

12. Antibodies are.
(A) lipids
(B) genes
(C) proteins
(D) carbohydrates

13. Choose the  correct statements ?
(A) Degenerative diseases are non communicable
(B) Allergy is caused by droplet infection
(C) Cholera is a viral disease
(D) AIDS can be prevented by vaccination.

14. Remain healthy means
(A) free of infection by pathogen
(B)Living in a pollution free environment
(C) tension free mental status
(D) All of the above

15. Diseases occurring due to infected articles of a patient are called
(A) Air borne
(B) Water borne
(C) Fomite borne
(D) Food bome

16. World Health Day Is On.
(A) 1ST May
(B) 7TH April
(C) 30th June
(D) 5th December

17. Which are intimately related.
(A) Diseases and health
(B) Body and spiritual health
(C) Mind & body
(D) Body and health

18. Pulse polio programme is organised in our country for.
(A) curing polio
(B) eradicating polio
(C) spreading polio
(D) non of the above

19. Community health aims at.
(A) better health and family planning
(B) better hygiene and clean environment
(C) removing communicable diseases
(D) all of the above

20. Head quarter of work Health Organisation(WHO) is located at.
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Paris
(D) none of these

21. Soil is a part of
(A) atmosphere
(B) lithosphere
(C) hydrosphere
(D) ionosphere

22. Maximum air in which we breath is present at
(A) troposphere
B) stratosphere
C) ionosphere
D) mesosphere

23. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
(A) sedimentary cycles
(B) gaseous cycles
(C) material cycles
(D) cycles of water

24. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil ?
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Rhizobium
(D) pseudomonas

25. Carbondioxide and Oxygen gas balance in atmosphere is due to
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) respiration
(C) leaf anatomy
(D) photorespiration

26. Nitrogen fixation is
(A) Nitrogen Ammonia
(B) Nitrogen nitrates
(C) Nitrogen Amino acid
(D) Both A and B

27. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(A) deforestation
(B) afforestation
(C) overgrazing
(D) removal of vegetation

28. A renewable source of energy is
(A) petroleum
(B) coal
(C) nuclear fuel
(D) Nine of these

29. Percentage of nitrogen in air is
(A) 77.02%
(B) 78.09%
(C) 76.08%
(D) 74.09%

30. Ozone layer is present in atmosphere in
(A) troposphere
(B) stratosphere
(C) mesosphere
(D) thermosphere

31. Nodules in the roots of legume plants contain
(A) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(B) sulphur fixing bacteria
(C) potassium fixing bacteria
(D) none of the above

32. Which gas is manly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer ?
(A) oxygen
(B) CFC
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) All of the above

33. Acid rain mainly contains
(A) nitric acid
(B) hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid
 (D) both (A) and (C)

34. Plants and animals are known as
(A) biotic resources
(B) Abiotic resources
(C) machines
(D) none of these

35. Coal is an / a
(A) exhaustible resource
(B) inexhaustible resource
(C) potential resource
(D) none of these

36. Ozonosphere occurs at height of
(A) 8-10km above poles
(B) 8-10km above equator
(C) 20-26 km above the earth surface
(D) 11-16km above equator

37. Biosphere is made of
(A) living beings and their remains
(B) living beings, lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
(C) living beings and lithosphere
(D) living beings, lithosphere and hydrosphere.

38. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(A) deforestation
(B) afforestation
(C) overgrazing
(D) removal of vegetation

39. Which one of the following is renewable resource ?
(A) water
(B) Metals
(C) Fossil fuel
(D) All of these

40. Which gas is responsible for the global warming
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen 
(D) Carbondioxide

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF CELL AND TISSUE PART - B, CLASS: IX

CELL AND TISSUE PAT - B, 

CLASS: IX

1. The entire body surface and cavities inside the body are lined by

(A) muscle tissue (B) epithelial tissue (C)connective tissue (D) nervous tissue (E) none of these

2. Which one of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(A)Areolar tissue (B) cartilage (C) Blood (D) Ligaments

3. The tissue that attaches muscles to the bones is

(A) cartilage (B) tendon (C) ligament (D) blood

4. The tissue that joins one bone to the other is

(A) ligament (B) tendon (C) blood (D) ) cartilage

5. Areolar tissue is a

(A) nervous tissue (B) muscular tissue (C) connective tissue (D) epithelial tissue

6. Tendon is a structure which connects

(A) a bone with another bone  (B) a muscle with a bone (C) a never with a muscle (D) a muscle with a muscle

7. Fluid part of blood after removal of corpuscles is

(A) plasma (B) lymph (C) serum (D) vaccine

8. Which of the following structures joins skeletal muscle to bone ?

(A)Ligament (B)Tendon (C)Blood (D) Bone

9. Yellow muscle fibers are also called as31

(A) bone (B) muscle (C) ligament (D) none of these

10. Ligament joins

(A) bone the muscle (B) muscle to muscle (C) bone to bone (D) none of these

11. The entire body surface and cavities inside the body are lined by

(A) nervous tissue (B) epithelial tissue (C)muscle tissue (D) none of these

12. Which one of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(A)Areolar tissue (B) cartilage (C) Blood (D) Ligaments

13. The tissue that attaches muscles to the bones is

(A) cartilage (B) tendon (C) ligament (D) blood

14. The tissue that joins one bone to the other is

(A) ligament (B) tendon (C) blood (D) ) cartilage

15. Areolar tissue is a

(A) nervous tissue (B) muscular tissue (C) connective tissue (D) epithelial tissue

16. Tendon is a structure which connects

(A) a bone with another bone (B) a never with a muscles

(C)  a muscle with a bone (D) a muscle with a muscle

17. Fluid part of blood after removal of corpuscles is

(A) plasma (B) lymph (C) serum (D) vaccine

18. Which of the following structures joins skeletal muscle to bone ?

(A)Ligament (B)Tendon (C)Blood (D) Bone

19. Yellow muscle fibers are also called as31

(A) bone (B) muscle (C) ligament (D) none of these

20. Ligament joins

(A) bone the muscle (B) muscle to muscle (C) bone to bone (D) none of these

21. Contraction and relaxation are unique features of

(A) epithelial tissue (B) connective tissue (C) muscle tissue (D) none of these

22. The tissue which is under the control of animal’s will is

(A) cardiac muscle (B) striated muscle (C) non-striated muscle (D) cartilage

23. The muscle which work throughout life without undergoing fatigue is

(A) striated muscle (B) non-striated muscle (C) ) cardiac muscle (D) all of the above (E) none of these

24. Which of the following is a voluntary muscle ?

(A) striated muscle (B) Unstriated muscle (C) ) cardiac muscle (D) (A) and(B)

25. Wall of urinary bladder consists of

(A) striated muscle (B) Unstriated muscle (C) both (A) and (B)   (D) none of these

26. Intercalated discs are present in

(A) striated muscle (B) Unstriated muscle (C) ) cardiac muscle (D) all of the above (E) none of these

27. The function unit of nervous tissue is called as

(A) cyton (B) synapse (C) neuron (D) axon

28. Which type of tissue forms spinal cord and brain ?

(A) muscle tissue (B) Nervous tissue (C) epithelial tissue (D) Epidermis

29. Involuntary tissue forms wall of which of the following organ ?

(A) intestine (B) stomach (C) bronchi (D) all of the above

30. Movements in body are brought about by

(A) muscle tissue (B) epithelial tissue

(C) Bones (D) tendons and ligaments

31. Classification reflecting the evolutionary interrelationships of organisms is called

(A) Phylogenetic classification (B) artificial classification

(C) Natural classification (D) numerical classification

32. Principles and rules of classification are studied under

(A) systematics (B)natural classification (C) nomenclature (D) taxonomy

33. Two kingdom classification was given by

(A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) ) Copeland (D) Whittaker

34. Three kingdom classification was proposed by

(A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) ) Whittaker (D) Lamarck

 41

35. Five kingdom Whittaker was proposed by

(A) Linnaeus (B) ) Whittaker (C) john Ray (D) Lamarck

36. Thallophyta includes

(A) fungi and bacteria (B) algae, fungi, animals and lichens

(C) Algae, fungi and lichens (D) algae and fungi

37. Flowering plants are included under

(A) cryptogams (B) phanerogams (C) bryophytes (D) pteridophytes

38. Which of the following has an embryo but lacks vascular tissue ?

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta

(C) Gymnosperms (D) angiosperms

39. Algae are characterized by (or) algae differ from bryophytes in

(A) aquatic habit (B) Thalloid plant body

(C) Pyrenoids (D) unicelled sex organs

40. The most primitive vascular plants are –

(A) bryophytes (B) pteridophytes

(C) Gymnosperms (D) angiosperms

41. Identification, nomenclature and

Classification of organisms is called

(A) Morphology (B) Ecology (C) Taxonomy (D) Phytogeography

42. Who is know as father of taxonomy?

(A) Mendel (B) Linnaeus (C) Drawing (D) Crick

43. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by

(A) John Ray (B) A.P. de Candolle (C) A.L.de Jussen (D) Carolus Linnaeus

44. The basic unit of classification is

(A) Variety (B) species (C) genus (D) family

45. A group of freely interbreeding organisms constitutes a

(A) species (B) genera (C) family (D) class

46. According to binomial nomenclature, the scientific name of an organism must

consists of two words. these are

(A) species and tribe (B) genus and species (C) order and family (D) genus and family

47. Which taxonomic term may be substituted for any rank in the classification?

(A) class (B) Geuns (C) Species (D) Taxon

48. Cryptogams include

(A) thallophytes (B) bryophytes (C) pteridophytes (D) all of the above

49. Algae are characterized by

(A) Pyrenoids (B) aquatic habital (C) unicellular sex organs (D) all of the above

50. In Whittaker’s classification, unicellular organisms are grouped under

(A) protista (B) porifera (C) fungi (D) protozoa

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF CELL AND TISSUE, PART - A, CLASS: IX

CELL AND TISSUE

CLASS: IX

TYPE - 1

1. The mode of nutrition in all fungi is characteristically
(A) Symbiotic (B) autotrophic (C) holozoic (D) saprotrophic

2. The reserve food in fungi is
(A) starch (B) cyanophycean starch
(C) glycogen (D) glycogen and fat

3. The algal partner of a lichen is called as
(A) Mycobiont (B) Phycobiont
(C) Both of the (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

4. Pteridophytes are known as
(A) sea plants (B) vascular cryptogames
(C) club mosses (D) horse tails

5. Gymnosperms are characterized by
(A) non-motile male gametes (B) naked seeds
(C) Winged seeds (D) true fruits

6. Which one is mismatched?
(A) Flagella …………. Euglena (B) Pseudopodia ………… Amoeba
(C) Cilia ………Paramecium (D) Flagella ……….. Plasmodium

7. Contractile vacuole is present in
(A) Amoeba (B) Euglena
(C) Paramecium (D) All of the above

8. ‘Venus flower basket’ is the dried skeleton of
(A) Euspongia (B) Euplectella (C) Spongilla (D) Leucosolenia

9. Choanocytes are unique to
(A) Protozoa (B) Porifera (C) Mollusca (D) Echinodermata

10. Cnidaria is characterised by
(A) nematoblasts (B) coelenteron
(C) tissue level of organisation (D) all of the above

11. Mesoglea is characteristic of
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Cnidaria (D) Mollusca

12. True jelly fish (e.g., Aurelia) belongs to class
(A) Hydrozoa (B) Anthozoa (C) Scyphozoa (D) Both B and C

13. Polymorphism is exhibited by
(A) Hydra (B) Physalia (C) ) Octopus (D) Crab

14. Comb jellies belong to
(A) Scyphozoa (B) Hydrozoa (C) Ctenophora (D) Both A and B

15. Platyhelminthes are called
(A) round worms (B) flat worms (C) blind worms (D) none of the above

16. In Platyhelminthes, the excertory organs are.
(A) nephridia (B) malpighian tubules
(C) flame cells (solenocytes) (D) green glands

17. Platyhelminthes are
(A) coelomates (B) pseudiocoelomates (C) ) haemocoelomates (D) Acoelomates

18. The common name for Ascaris is
(A) shipworm (B) pinworm (C) tapeworm (D) round worm

19. Metamerism is characteristic feature of
(A) Chordata (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Nematoda

20. The excretory organs of Annelida are
(A) nephridia (B) statocysts (C) archeocytes (D) none of the above

TYPE - 2

1. The first person to observe a cell under microscope was
(A) M. Schleiden
(B) T. Schwann
(C) Robert Hook
(D) A.V.Leeuwenhoek

2. Cell theory was propounded by
(A) Morgan
(B) Halden
(C) Schleiden and Schwann
(D) Robert Hooke

3. The word cell was coined by
(A) Robert hooke
(B) Weismann
(C) Cuvier
(D) Darwin

4. Nucleus discovered by
(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Robert Brown
(C) Dujardin
(D) Purkinje

5. Smallest cells so far known are
(A) Bacteria
(B) blue green algae
(C) PPLOs
(D) human egg

6. Which of the following is the longest cell of animal kingdom?
(A)Bacteria
(B) Nerve cell
(C) Virus
(D) Muscle cell

7. Which one of the following is an example of prokaryotic cell?
(A)Typical plant cell
(B) Typical animal cell
(C) Bacteria
(D) None of these

8. What is cytology?
(A) Study of cytoplasm
(B) Study of structure and composition of cell
(C) Study of animal cell only
(D) Study of cell only

9. Who coined term protoplasm?
(A)Leeuwenhoek
(B) Purkinje
(C) Robert hooke
(D) Robert Brown

10. Cell is
(A) Hereditary unit of life 
(B) Structural unit of life
(C) Functional unit of life
(D) all of the above

11. What is more abundant in smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
( A) Cistemae and vesicle
(B) Tubules
(C) Tubules and vesicles
(D) Cistemae

12. Mitochondria are concerned with
(A) Kreb cycle
(B) C, cycle
(C) glycolysis
(D) none of the above

13. Which of the following organelle is the site of Kreb cycle?
(A) Ribosome’s
(B) Lysosomes
(C) eukaryotic cells
(D) Nucleus

14. Mitochondria are absent in
(A) Prokaryotic cells
(B) RBC of mammals
(C) eukaryotic cells
(D) (A) and (B) Both

15. Mitochondria stores energy in from of
(A) Heat energy
(B) ATP
(C) light energy
(D) none of the above

16. The ATP synthesizing units of Mitochondria are
(A) Oxysomes
(B) peroxysomes
(C) glyoxysomes
(D) lysosomes

17. Lipid synthesis is performed by
(A) Rough ER
(B) smooth ER
(C) both of above
(D) none of the above

18. Who observed Mitochondria at first?
(A) Porter
(B) Palade
(C) Koliker
(D) Camilo Golgi

19. Detoxification of body is done by?
(A) Mitochondria
(B) lysosomes
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

20. Golgi apparatus is made of
(A) Cisternae
(B) vesicles
(C) golgian vacuoles
(D) all of the above

21.Which of the following is called as ‘Suicidal bags’ ?
(A) Centrosome
(B) Lysosome
(C) Microsome
(D) Mesosomes

22. Eukaryotic ribosomes are
(A) 30s
(B) 50s
(C) 80s
(D) 70s

23. Plastids that are white in colour (Pigment free)
(A)chloroplast
(B) lysosome
(C) leucoplast
(D) Chromoplast

24. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence
(A) mitochondria
(B) plasma membrane
(C) cell wall
(D) ribosome

25. Tonoplast is the membrane surrounding the
(A) cytoplasm
(B) vacuole
(C) nucleus
(D) mitochondria

26. Lysosomes are responsible for
(A) protein synthesis
(B) digestion of organic molecules
(C)fat synthesis
(D) fat emulsification

27. In prokaryotic cell
(A) nucleus is developed
(B) membrane bounded organelles are present
(C) double membrane bounded organelles are absent
(D) none of these

28. A typical plant cell contains
(A) cell well
(B) plastids
(C) large vacuole
(D) all of the above

29. The waste disposal system of cell is formed by
(A) lysosomes
(B) peroxysomes
(C) mitochondria
(D) glyoxysomes

30. In which cell Centriole is absent ?
(A) plant cell
(B) Animal cell
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above

31 A group of cells having common origin and performing similar function is called
(A) tissue
(B) organ
(C) organ system
(D) cell aggregate

32. Meristems are cells that
(A) store food
(B) help in excretion
(C) provide support
(D) divide continuously to produce new cells

33. Plant length is increased by the activity of
(A) apical meristem
(B) lateral meristem
(C) cambium
(D) all of the above

34. In plants, cell division is restricted to
(A) Meristematic cells
(B) permanent cells
(C) xylem
(D) phloem

35. In grasses the length of increases by the activity of
(A) apical meristem
(B) intercalary meristem
(C) lateral meristem
(D) none of these

36. Special feature of dividing cells is
(A) large lacuna (B) thick cell walls
(C) dense cytoplasm devoid of lacuna (D) large intercellular spaces

37. Totipotency is present in
(A) meristem
(B) cambium
(C) phloem
(D) cork

38. Which of the following is a feature of Meristematic tissues ?
(A) Thin cell wall
(B) Compact tissue
(C) Large no. of cell organelles are present in the cells of tissues.
(D) All of the above

39. Which of the following plant tissue is formed by permanent tissue ?
(A) primary tissue
(B) Secondary tissue
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above

40. Which of the following plant tissues causes growth in girth of stem and root ?
(A) Apical meristem
(B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem
(D) None of the above

41. A permanent tissue of plant consisting of thin walled living cells is
(A) parenchyma
(B) collenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma
(D) xylem

42. A permanent plant tissue made up of living cell having thickening at the corners is
A) Sclerenchyma
(B) collenchyma
(C) parenchyma
(D) phloem

43. The main function of Sclerenchyma is to help in the
(A) conduction of food
(B) synthesis of food
(C) exchange of gases
(D) mechanical support

44. The wall of cork cells are thickened by the deposition of
(A) cutin
(B) suberin
(C) lignin
(D) pectin

45. The wax like substance present in the cell wall of onion skin is
(A) pectin
(B) lignin
(C) cellulose
(D) suberin

46. The outer wall of epidermis in stems and leaves has a waxy covering made up of
(A) lignin
(B) suberin
(C) pectin
(D) cutin

47. Collenchyma differs from Sclerenchyma in
(A) retaining cytoplasm at maturity
(B) having thick walls
(C) having a wide lumen
(D) being Meristematic

48. Lignified elongated bead cells are
(A) parenchyma
(B) collenchyma
(C) sclerenchyma
(D) Epidermis

49. Which of the following plant tissue lacks protoplasm at maturity ?
(A) Sclerenchyma
(B) Collenchyma
(C) parenchyma
(D) Epidermis

50. In plants phloem tissues perform the function of
(A) conduction of water
(B) conduction of food
(C) photosynthesis
(D) mechanical support




BY 
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF OUR ENVIRONMENT & ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE CLASS: X

OUR ENVIRONMENT & ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE

CLASS: X

1. Ecosystem term was coined by
(A) Odum (B) Mishra (C) Reiter (D) Tansley

2. Pyramids of biomass are
(A) upright or inverted (B) always inverted (C) mostly upright (D) mostly inverted

3. Vultures in an ecosystem are
(A) predators (B) scavengers (C) consumers (D) top carnivores

4. In which of the following trophic levels in any ecosystem the maximum energy is stored ?
(A) Producers (B) Herbivores (C) Carnivores (D) Top carnivores (E) None of these

5. In an ecosystem the
(A) primary producers are more than that of primary consumers
(B) secondary consumers are largest, because they are powerful
(C) primary consumers are out of number
(D) primary consumers are least dependent upon primary producers

6. In an ecosystem the function of the produces is to
(A) convert organic compounds into inorganic compounds (B) trap solar energy and convert in into chemical energy
(C) utilize chemical energy (D) release energy (E) none of these

7. The importance of ecosystem lies in
(A) flow of energy (B) cycling of materials (C) both of the above (D) none of the above

8. A biosphere is composed of
(A) living organisms
(B) living organisms and lithosphere
(C) living organisms, lithosphere and atmosphere
(D) living organisms, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere

9. Pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem is
(A) always inverted (B) always upright
(C) both upright and inverted (D) first upright then inverted

10. Which one of these is likely to have been absent in free form at the time of origin of life ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Ammonia (D) Methane

11. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in man ?
(A) Vermiform appendix (B) Plica seminualris (C) Ear muscles (D) Epiglottis

 12. The famous book “Origin of Species” was written by Charles Darwin in
(A) 1809 (B) 1859 (C) 1885 (D) 1871
13. Charles Darwin toured in a ship for five years it was
(A) Vikrant (B) Phillips (C) Alexander (D) Beagle

14. The term evolution in Biology means that
(A) fossils are old (B) life began in Sea
(C) living things constantly change (D) none of the above

15. The theory of Natural selection of Darwin to explain organic evolution was based on
(A) modification in organs through used and disuse
(B) probability of reproduction, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
(C) Inheritance of acquired characters
(D) appearance of sudden large variations, then inheritance and survival of those having these variations

16. Homologus structures have
(A) similar origin & dissimilar function (B) dissimilar origin but similar function
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

17. Analogous organs are those which are
(A) structurally similar (B) functionally similar
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

18. The concept or idea of “Survival of fittest” was given by
(A) Darwin (B) Herbert Spencer (C) Lamarck (D) Devries

19. Evolution is the best defined by
(A) inheritance of acquired characters (B) struggle for existence
(C) spontaneous generation (D) none of these

20  Which one is not a vestigial organ in man ?
(A) Vermiform appendix (B) Plica seminualris (C) Ear muscles (D) Epiglottis

21. Which one of these is likely to have been absent in free form at the time of origin of life ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Ammonia (D) Methane

22. The famous book “Origin of Species” was written by Charles Darwin in
(A) 1809 (B) 1859 (C) 1885 (D) 1871

23. Charles Darwin toured in a ship for five years it was
(A) Vikrant (B) Phillips (C) Alexander (D) Beagle

24. The term evolution in Biology means that
(A) fossils are old (B) life began in Sea
(C) living things constantly change (D) none of the above

25. The theory of Natural selection of Darwin to explain organic evolution was based on
(A) modification in organs through used and disuse
(B) probability of reproduction, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
(C) Inheritance of acquired characters
(D) appearance of sudden large variations, then inheritance and survival of those having these variations

26. Homologus structures have
(A) similar origin & dissimilar function (B) dissimilar origin but similar function
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

27. Analogous organs are those which are
(A) structurally similar (B) functionally similar
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

28. The idea of “Survival of fittest” was given by
(A) Darwin (B) Herbert Spencer (C) Lamarck (D) Devries

29. Evolution is the best defined by
(A) inheritance of acquired characters (B)  struggle for existence
(C) spontaneous generation (D).descent by modifications

BY ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF REPRODUCTON: CLASS X

REPRODUCTON

CLASS: X

1. Cleistogamous condition is present in
(A) Brassica oleracea (B) Solanum tuberosum (C) Arachis hypogea (D) Allium cepa

2. Which of the following regenerated with the help of layering?
(A) Cactus (B) Rose (C) Mango (D) Jasmine

3. Development of egg without fertilization is
(A) parthenocarpy (B) polyembryo
(C) parthenogenesis (D) adventive embryony

4. Anemophily is pollination by
(A) air (B) water (C) insects (D) animal

5. Pollination between different flowers of same plant is called
(A) autogamy (B) geitonogamy (C) allogamy (D) xenogamy

6. Double fertilization is
(A) fusion of two male gametes with egg
(B) fusion of one male gamete with egg and the other male gamete with the polar bodies
(C) both are correct
(D) both are incorrect

7. The structure meant for the nourishment of developing embryo in case of plant is
(A) Pollen tube (B) Endosperm
(C) Pollen tube and Endosperm (D) None of these

8. The embryo sac of a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is -
(A) 8 called (B) 7 celled (C) 6 called (D) 5 celled

9. The genetic information is stored in -
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Ribosome (D) ER

10. Each female flower consist of
(A) ovary (B) stigma (C) ovary, style and stigma (D) thalamus (E) none of these

11. In mammals, the testes lies in scrotal sacs due to
(A) presence of urinary bladder (B) presence of rectum
(C) long vas-deference (D) requirement of low temperate for spermatogenesis

12. Graffian follicles are found in
(A) testis of mammas (B) ovary of frog (C) ovary of cockroach (D) ovary of mammals

13. Site of fertilization in mammals is
(A) ovary (B) uterus (C) vagina (D) fallopian tube ( E) none of these

14. The process of reproduction which involves only a single parent to form an individual
(A) sexual reproduction (B) asexual reproduction
(C) none of these (D) Both A & B are correct

15. Cowper’s glands are found in
(A) male mammals (B) female mammals (C) male amphibians (D) female amphibians

16. Loss of reproductive capacity in women after age of 45 years is
(A) menstruation (B) ageing (C) menopause (D) menarche

17. Release of oocytes from ovary is
(A) gestation (B) ovulation (C) parturition (D) implantation

18. Acrosome is made up of
(A) mitochondria (B) centrioles (C) golgi bodies (D) ribosomes

19. Acrosome aids the sperm to
(A) penetrate vitelline membrane of ovum (B) find ovum
(C) swim (D) higher activity

20. Progesterone is secreted by
(A) corpus luteum (B) thyroid (C) thymus (D) testis

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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