MCQ OF SOURCES OF ENERGY, CLASS: X

SOURCES OF ENERGY

CLASS: X

1. Solar energy can be used to produce :

(A) electrical energy (B) heat energy (C) mechanical energy (D) all of the above (E) none of these

2. The energy processed by wind is :

(A) kinetic energy (B) potential energy (C) thermal energy (D) sound energy (E) none of these

3. The fuel used in a stream engine is :

(A) water (B) carbon monoxide (C) oxygen (D) none of these

4. A solar cell convert heat and light energy into :

(A) heat energy (B) sound energy (C) electrical energy (D) wind energy. (E) none of these

5. Biogas is a mixture of :

(A) Carbon monoxide , hydrogen gas and methane  (B) Carbon monoxide , hydrogen gas 

(C) Carbon dioxide , hydrogen gas and methane (D) none of these

6. The sources of energy which are being produced continuously in nature and are inexhaustible are called :

(A) conventional sources (B) non-conventional sources (C) non-renewable sources (D) none of these

7. Choose the source of energy which is different from others :

(A) Wood (B) Falling water (C) Wind (D) Petroleum (E) none of these

8. The vast amount of sea weeds present in oceans may provide an endless source of :

(A) hydro energy (B) ocean thermal energy (C) methane (D) none of these

9. Energy available from the oceans is :

(A) OTE (B) sea-waves energy (C) tidal energy (D) all of the above (E) none of these

10. Radiations used to get relief from bodyaches are :

(A) I.R.radiations (B) U.V. radiations (C) Visible radiations (D) None of these

11. Wood is a :

(A) primary fuel (B) liquid fuel (C) processed fuel (D) secondary fuel (E) none of these

12. Which of the following is as example of fossil fuel ?

(A) Coal gas (B) Coke (C) Natural gas (D) Producer gas (E) none of these

13. The device in which the nuclear fission and release of energy is controlled, is known as :

(A) Thermopile (B) Thermostat (C) Nuclear reactor (D) Cloud chamber (E) none of these

14. For a sustained chain reaction, the reproduction factor should be :

(A) 1 (B)  10  (C) infinite  (D)  none of these

15. Role of Moderator  in nuclear reactor for :

(A) slowing neutrons (B) accelerating neutrons (C) stopping neutrons (D) heating the neutrons (E) none of these

16. The fusion reaction occur at :

(A) low pressures (B) low temperature (C) extremely high temperature (D) high temperature and low pressures

17. The source of energy of the sun is :

(A) Nuclear fission (B) Chemical reaction (C) Nuclear fusion (D)  All of these  (E) None of these

18. The number of neutrons in an atom X of atomic number Z and mass number A is :-

(A) zero (B) Z (C) A - Z (D) A (E) none of these

19. When a beta particle is given out, the atomic number of the parent atom :

(A) Increase by unity (B) Decrease by unity (C) Remains the same (D) Is halved

20.. Which have least penetrating power ?

(A) Alpha particles (B) Gamma rays (C) Beta particles (D) All have the same penetrating power (E) none of these

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MCQ OF MAGNETIC EFFECTS & EMI, CLASS: X

MAGNETISM AND EMI

CLASS: X

1. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces :
(A) we will have a single pole on each piece (B) each piece will have two unlike poles
(C) each piece will have two like poles (D) None of these

2. The magnetic field intensity produced due to a current carrying coil is maximum at :
(A) any point (B) any point lying on the axis of the coil (C) points lying between centre of the coil and its circumference (D) none of these

3. The direction of magnetic lines of force produced by passing a direct current in a conductor is :
(A) perpendicular to the conductor & coming outwards
(B) parallel to conductor
(C) surrounding the conductor and of circular nature
(D) perpendicular to the conductor & coming inwards

4. Which of the following statement is not correct about two parallel conductors carrying equal currents in the same direction ?
(A) Every conductors will experience a force. (B) The two conductors will repel each other.
 (C) Each of the conductors will move if not prevented from doing so. (D) none of these

5. Which of the following determine the direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying conductor ?
(A) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction. (B) Fleming’s left-hand rule.
(C) Lenz’s law. (D) Maxwell’s cork screw rule. (E) none of these.

6. If the cylindrical bar magnet is kept along axis and  rotated about its axis, then :
(A) a current will be induced in the coil (B) no current will be induced in the coil. (C) only emf will be induced in the coil (D) am emf and current both will be induced in the coil (E) none of these

7. In the figure QR is a vertical conductor and the current I flows from R to Q. P is a point on the horizontal plane and is to the south of the wire. The direction of the magnetic field at P due to the current will be towards :
(A) upward (B) north (C) east (D) west (E) none of these

8. A length of wire carries steady current. It bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn. The same length is now bent to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field produced at the centre by the same current will be :
(A) a quarter of its first value (B) a half of first value (C) four times its first value (D) unaltered (E) none of these

9. The intensity of a magnetic field is defined as the force experienced by a :
(A) standard compass (B) unit positive charge
(C) unit negative charge (D) unit north pole

10.. A wire carrying a current of 5A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic induction of 2T. The force on each centimeter of the wire is :
(A) 1N (B) 100 (C) 0.1 N (D) 10 N

11. If a soft iron piece is buried under the surface of earth in the north and south direction, then
(A) it will acquire the properties of a magnet (B) its properties will not change
(C) it will behave like an insulator (D) can’t say with surity

12. Force acting on a stationary charge Q in the magnetic field B is -
(A) B Q V (B) BV/Q (C) Zero (D) BQ/V

13. The permanent magnets are kept with soft iron pieces at ends and keepers :
(A) to magnetise the soft iron pieces (B) to increase the strength of the magnets
(C) to avoid self demagnetisation (D) for physical safety of the magnets

14. The device whish is used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called :
(A) electric motor (B) dynamo (C) transformer (D) battery

15. In case of a DC generator a large number of coils each having many turns and arranged in different turns are used :
(A) to get high voltage DC (B) to get high ampere DC
(C) to get smooth DC (D) get pulsating current

16. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservations of :
(A) energy (B) momentum (C) angular momentum (D) charge and mass

17. In a DC generator, the induced e.m.f. in the armature is :
(A) DC (B) AC` (D) fluctuating DC (D) both AC and DC

18. The induced emf produced when a magnet is inserted into a coil does not depend upon :
(A) the number of turns in the coil (B) the magnetic moment of the magnet
(C) the magnetic moment of the magnet (D) all of these  (E) none of these

19. When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current :
(A) is a constant and in the direction of inducing current
(B) is a constant and is opposite to the direction of inducing current
(C) increases with time and is in the direction of inducing current
(D) increases with time and opposite to the direction of inducing current

20. The device whish is used for converting electrical energy into mechanical energy is called :
(A) electric (B) dynamo (C) transformer (D) battery

21.The current in the armature of a dc motor is maximum when :
(A) the motor achieves maximum speed (B) the motor achieves intermediate speed
(C) the motor is switched on (D) the motor is switched off

22. The effect of using split rings in a simple DC motor is that :
(A) the direction of rotation of the coil is reversed
(B) the current in the coil always flows in the same direction
(C) the direction of the current flowing in the coil is reversed
(D) None of these

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MCQ OF ELECTRICITY, CLASS: X

ELECTRICITY

CLASS: X

1. How many electrons constitute a current of
(A) 6.25 × 1018 (B) 6.25 × 1012 (C) 6.25 × 1011 (D) 6.25

2. 1 Coulomb is equal to :
(A) 1 amp × 1 sec (B) 1 amp / 1 sec (C) 1 joule × 1 amp (D) 1 joule / 1 sec

3. When a body is negatively charged by fraction, it means :
(A) the body has acquired excess of electrons (B) the body has acquired excess of protons
(C) must be zero (D) many be negative or positive or zero

4. If a charged body attracts another body, the charge on the other body :
(A) must be negative (B) must be positive
(C) must be zero (D) may negative or positive or zero

5. A suitable unit for expressing the strength of electric field is :
(A) V/C (B) C/m (C) N/C (D) C/N

6. One ampere equal ____________

7. What constituted current in a metal wire ?
(A) Electrons (B) Protons (C) Atoms (D) Molecules

8. If I is the current through a wire and e is the charge of electron, then the number of electrons in t seconds
will be given by-
(A)Ie/t  (B) e/lt (C) lt/e (D) lte

9. Conventionally, the direction of the current is taken as -
(A) the direction of flow of negative charges (B) the direction of flow of atoms
(C) the direction of flow of positive charges (D) the direction of flow of molecules

10. When the temperature of metallic conductor is increased its resistance :
(A) always decrease (B) always increase
(C) may increase or decease (D) remain the same

11. Specific residence of a wire depends upon :
(A) its length (B) its cross - sectional area (C) its dimensions (D) its material  (E) none of these

12. The unit of resistivity is :
(A) ohm (B) ohm meter (C) ohm /meter (D) none of these

13. A wire of resistance R is cut into t equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of combination will be :
(A) tR (B) R/t (C) t/R (D) none of these

14 A piece of wire having resistance 4 ohm is bent through 180 at its mid point and the two halves are twisted together, then resistance is :
(A) 1 ohm  (B) 2 ohm (C) 5 ohm (D) 8 ohm  (E) none of these

15. Three resistance each of 8 ohm are connected to a triangle. The resistance between any two terminal will be:
(A) 12 ohm (B) 2 ohm  (C) 6 ohm  (D) 3/16 ohm (E) none of these

16. In how many parts(equal) a wire of 100 ohm be cut so that a resistance of 1ohm is obtained by connecting them in parallel ?
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) 100 (D) 50  (E) none of these

17. The filament of an electric bulb is made of tungsten because :
(A) its melting point is high (B) it is cheaper (C)its resistance is negligible   (D) its filament is easily made (E) none of these

18. If a wire of resistance 1 ohm is stretched to double its length, then the resistance will become :
(A) ½ ohm  (B) 2 ohm (C) ¼ ohm (D) 4 ohm  (E) none of these

19. Rate of heat generated by electrical current in a resistive circuit is expressed in :
(A) IR^2 (B) IR (C) I^2R (D) IR  (E) none of these

20. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel with a battery. They ratio of heat produced in the two cases in :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4 (E) none of these

21. How much electrical energy in kilowatt hour is consumed in operating ten, 50 watt bulbs for 10 hours per day in a month of 30 days ?
(A) 15 (B) 150 (C) 1500 (D) 15000 (E) none of these

22. An electric iron draws a current of 4A when connected to a 220 V mains. Its resistance must be :
(A) 40 ohm  (B) 55 ohm (C) 100 ohm (D) None of these (E) none of these

23. The resistance of a conductors is reduced to half its initial value. In during so the heating effects in the conductor will become :
(A) half (B) one-fourth (C) four times (D) double  (E) none of these

24. Laws of heating are given by :
(A) Faraday (B) Joule (C) Ohm (D) Maxwell

25. An electric iron is based upon the principle of :
(A) magnetic effect of current (B) heating effect of current
(C) chemical effect of current (D) none of these

26. A fuse wire is always connected to the :
(A) neutral wire (B) earth wire (C) live wire (D) none of these  (E) none of these

27. Heating effete of a current conductor is due to :
(A)  Attraction between electrons and atoms (B) Loss of kinetic energy of moving electrons
(C)  Loss of kinetic energy of moving atoms (D) Repulsion between electrons and atoms  (E) none of these

28. The wire having a red plastic covering is a :
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) earth wire  (D) all of these (E) none of these

29. A switch is always connected to the
(A) earth wire (B) neutral wire (C) live wire (D) all of these (E) none of these

30. The wire having a black plastic covering is a
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) earth wire (D) all of these (E) none of these

31. The wire having a green plastic covering is a
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire (C) earth wire (D)all of these (E) none of these

32. In three pin socket (shoe) the bigger hole is connected to :
(A) any wire (B) live wire (C) neutral wire (D) earth wire (E) none of these

33. Coming of live wire and neutral wire in direct contact cause :
(A) short-circuiting (B) over loading (C) no damage (D) unknown effect (E) none of these

34. In electric fitting in a house :
(A)  the earth wire goes through the switch (B) the neutral wire goes through the switch
(C) the live wire goes through the switch (D) no wire goes through the switch  (E) none of these

35. High power electrical appliances are earthed to
(A) avoid shock (B) avoid wastage (C) Make the appliance look beautiful (D) unknown effect (E) none of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF HUMAN EYE, CLASS: X

HUMAN EYE

CLASS: X

1. The focal length of eye lens controlled by-
(A) Iris (B) Cornea (C) Ciliary muscles (D) Optic nerve

2. A white lights falls on a glass prism, the least deviated colour is -
(A) Violet (B) Orange (C) Red (D) Yellow

3. Blue colour of sky is due to -
(A) dispersion of light (B) scattering of light (C) refraction of light (D) reflection of light

4. Rainbow is formed due to -
(A) reflection and dispersion of light through a water droplet
(B) Total internal reflection, refraction and dispersion of light through a water droplet
(C) only dispersion of light
(D) only refraction of light

5. Power of accommodation (max. variation in power of eye lens) of a normal eye is about -
(A) 1D (B) 2D (C) 3D (D) 4D

6. Dispersion of light by a prism is due to the change in -
(A) frequency of light (B) speed of light (C) scattering (D) none of these

7. Least distance of distinct vision of a long-sighted man is 40 cm. He wish to reduce it to 25 cm by using a lens. Then the focal length of the lens is -
(A)  200/3  (B) – 200/3  (C) + 200 cm (D) – 200 cm

8. Which of the following colour has the least wave length ?
(A) red (B) orange (C) violet (D) Blue

9. Convex lens of suitable focal length can correct -
(A) short sightedness (B) long sightedness (C) presbyopia (D) astigmatism

10. The focal length of human eye lens is -
(A) 2.5 cm (C) 25 cm (C) 25m (D) none of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF LIGHT, CLASS: X

LIGHT

CLASS: X

1. The path along which light travels in a homogenous medium is called the :
(A) beam of light (B) ray of light (C) pencil of light (D) none of these

2. A thin layer of water is transparent but a very thick layer of water is :
(A) translucent (B) opaque (C) most transparent (D) none of these

3. Air is not visible because it _
(A) is nearly a perfectly transparent substance
(B) neither absorbs nor reflects light
(C) transmits whole of light
(D) all the above are correct

4. According to laws of reflection of light :
(A) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
(B) Angle of incidence is less than the angle or reflection
(C) Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection
(D) None of these

5. A swimming pool appears to be 2m deep. It actual depth is ( refractive index for water = 1.33)-
(A) 2.66 m (B) 2m (C) 2.34 m (D) 2.54 m

6 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle x  and the angle between the incident and reflected rays is 65, what is the value of x :
(A) 32.5 (B) 35 (C) 45 (D) None of these

7. When a ray of light enters a transparent medium it undergoes change is :
(A) Frequency only (B) Wavelength only (C) Wavelength and velocity both (D) Velocity and frequency both

8. The focal length of a concave mirror is f m  and the distance from the object to the principal focus is a m. The magnitude of magnification obtained will be-
(A) (f + a)/f (B) f/a (C) f / a (D) f2/a2

9. The magnification of an object placed 10 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm will be.
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) infinity

10. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. the position of the object should be-
(A) between the focus and the centre of curvature.
(B) at the centre of curvature
(C) beyond the centre of curvature
(D) between the pole of the mirror and the focus

11. The magnification produces by a concave mirror-
(A) is always more the one
(B) is always less than one
(C) is always equal to one
(D) may be less than or greater than one

12. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of the object should be :
(A) Beyond C (B) Between C and F (C) At C (D) At F

13. A boy is standing in front of a place mirror at a distance of 3 m from it. What is the distance between the boy and his image ?
(A) 3 m (B) 4.5 m (C) 6 m (D) none of these

14. Refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5 and refractive index of water with respect to air is 3/4  What will be the refractive index of glass w.r.t water ?
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.125 (D) -10

15. The refractive index of a medium depends upon -
(A) Nature of material of the medium
(B) Optical density of the medium
(C) Wavelength of light
(D) All of these

16. A ray of light in incident normally on a rectangular piece of glass. The value of angle of refraction will be-
(A) 1800 (B) 900 (C) 450 (D) 00

17. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of the circle is -
(A) 12 × 3 × 5 cm (B) 12 × 3 × 7 cm (C) 12 × 5 / 2 cm (D) None of these

18. The speed of light is vacuum is 3.0 ×108 m/s. If the refractive index of a transparent liquid is 4/3, then the speed of light in the liquid is -
(A) 2.25 × 108 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s (C) 4 × 108 m/s (D) 4.33 × 108 m/s

19. 1. To get a real and inverted image of the same size as that the object should be placed in front of the convex lens at:
(A) F (B) 2F  C) between F and 2F (D) away from 2F, where F is focal length

20. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens have each focal length of - 10cm. The mirror and lens are :
(A) both convex (B) both concave (C) mirror is convex and lens is concave (D) mirror is concave and lens is convex

21. The power of lens having focal length 50 cm is :
(A) 1/2 D (B) 2D (C) 3D (D) 0.2 D

22. The focal length of a lens of power - 2.0 D is :
(A) -2.0 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.5 m

23. Two lenses of +5D and -5D are placed in chose contact. The focal length of the combination is :
(A) Zero (B) infinity (C) Zero or infinity  (D) None of these

24 A student needs a lens of power -2.0 dioptre to correct his distant vision. The focal length of the given lens is :
(A) + 50 cm (B) -50 cm (C) 10 cm (D) -10 cm

25. Focal length of coloured goggles (without number) is :
(A) zero (B) infinity (C) between zero & infinity (D) None of these

26. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of very large size is obtained, using a convex lens ?
(A) At the focus (B) At 2F (C) Between F & 2F (D) Beyond 2F

27. A convex lens is :
(A) Thicker at the middle, thinner at the edges
(B) Diverging
(C) Thicker at the edges thinner in the middle
(D) Of uniform thickness everywhere

28. A glass rod of refractive index 1.42 is immersed in kerosene. The refractive index of kerosene is 1.42. Then the rod will :
(A) appear bent (B) appear raised above the liquid
(C) become invisible (D) none of the above

29. The power of a lens whose focal length is 25 cm is :
(A) 4 Dioptre (B) 25 Dioptre (C) 0.04 Dioptre (D) 2.5 Dioptre

30. A thin lens is made with a material having refractive index n = 1.5. Both the side are convex. It is dipped in water ( n = 1.33), it will be have like :
(A) a convergent lens (B) a divergent lens
(C) a rectangular slab (D) a prism

31. Choose the correct option :
(A) If the final rays are converging, we have a real image.
(B) If the incident rays are converging, we have a real image.
(C) If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.
(D) The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image.

32. A convex lens forms a real image of a point object placed on its principal axis. If the upper half on the lens is painted black :
(A) the image will be shifted backward
(B) the image will not be shifted
(C) the intensity of the image will decrease
(D) both (B) & (C)

33. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens of focal length ƒ is :
(A) ƒ (B) 2ƒ (C) 3ƒ` (D) 4ƒ

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES, CLASS: 9TH

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES

CLASS: IX

1. Which one of the following includes only macronutrients?
(A) C,N, Ca
(B) H, Fe, P
(C) O, K, Cl
(D) K, S, Zn

2. Transfer of seedling from the nurseries to the main field is termed as
(A) weeding
(B) sowing
(C) transplantation
(D) ploughing

3. The unwanted wild plants growing alonwith the crop plants are called
(A) weeds
(B) seedling
(C) minor crops
(D) grasses

4. Damp grains in storage gets heated due to
(A) infestation by insects
(B) decrease in humidity
(C) decrease in atmospheric pressure
(D) high moisture content and growth of moulds

5. Green maturing refers to
(A) add green leaves to the soil
(B) grow young and green crops of leguminous plants along with non leguminous
(C) add decomposed organic matter to soil
(D) none of these

6. Vermicomposting involves
(A) earthworm
(B) cockroach
(C) leech
(D) roundworm

7. Improved storage structures include
(A) grain silos
(B) pusa bin
(C) pusa kothar
(D) all of these

8. Weedicides among the following are
(A) 2, 4-D, nitrofen, atrazine
(B) atrazine, BHC, pyrethrum
(C) Pyrethrum, EDB, methyl bromide
(D) 2, 4-D , BHC, EDB

9. Which one of the following does not cause plant diseases?
(A) viruses
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Fungi

10. EDB is a very effective
(A) rodent bait
(B) spraying insecticide
(C) fumigant for killing insects
(D) preservative of food grains

11. The branch of  science that deal with the study of vegetable culture is called as
(A) Agriculture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Olericulture
(D) Floriculture

12. All animals are
(A) Parasitic
(B) saprophytic
(C) autotrophic
(D) heterotrophic

13. The principal cereal crop of India is
(A) wheat
(B) rice
(C) maize
(D) sorghum

14. which is the most important source of food and fodder ?
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Lichen
(D) Cereal

15. The element which is required in largest quantity by plants is
(A) sulphur
(B) calcium
(C) phosphorus
(D) nitrogen

16. Nodules with nitrogen – fixing bacteria are present in
(A) mustard
(B) wheat
(C) gram
(D) cotton

17. Application of nitrogenous manure to a plant causes
(A) vigorous vegetative growth
(B) early flowering
(C) early
(D) growth retardation due to toxicity to NH3

18. Rotation of crops is essential for
(A) getting different kinds of crops
(B) increasing fertility of soil
(C) increasing quality of proteins
(D) increasing quality of minerals

19. The unwanted plants are known as
(A) grasses
(B) shrubs
(C) weeds
(D) fodder crops

20. Plants can be made disease resistant by
(A) breeding
(B) hormones
(C) colchicine
(D) heat

21. Murrah, Surti and Mehsana are the indigenous breeds of
(A) cows
(B) buffaloes
(C) poultry
(D) pigs

22. Inland fisheries is referred to
(A) culturing fish in fresh water
(B) deep sea fisheries
(C) extraction of oil from fishes
(D) capturing fishes from seas

23. chemical used to kill rats and moles is called as
(A) fungicide
(B) nematicide
(C) rodenticide
(D) insecticide

24. Cropping pattern involving a definite pattern of rows is called as
(A) crop rotation
(B) mixed cropping
(C) inter cropping
(D) monoculture

25. cattle food rich in one or more nutrients but lacks fibres is called as
(A) roughage
(B) concentrate
(C) sap
(D) none of these

26. IR36 and Pusa Basmati are high yielding varieties of
 (A) rice
(B) wheat
(C) maize
(D) mustard

27. Honey bee culture is called as
(A) pisciculture
(B) apiculture
(C) sericulture
(D) horticulture

28. Hybridization can be
(A) intervarietal
(B)  intergeneric 
(C)  interspecific
(D) all of these

29. The process of applying fertilizers through drip irrigation is called as
(A) strip farming
(B) fertigation
(C) fumigation
(D) none of these

30. The specific term for poultry used for meat purpose is
(A) layers
(B) broilers
(C) growers
(D)none of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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TRIANGLE OBJECTIVE

           TRIANGLE - 1

ARYABHAT FATHER OF INDIAN MATHEMATICS

FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. A triangle having all the three sides of equal length is known as .....................

2. A triangle having two sides of equal length is known as ..........................

3. A triangle having three sides of different length is known as ....................

4. A triangle whose all angles are acute angle is called ............................

5. A triangle whose one angle is obtuse angle is called ............................

6. A triangle whose one angle is right angle is called.................................

7. The sum of all interior angles of triangle is ............................

8. The sum of all exterior angles of triangles is ........................

9. Area of triangle = ....................

10. Triangle is derived from two word ................ and ..............which means ...........

       

11.      The angle opposite to equal side of a triangle are  ………………………...

12.      Sum of the angles of quadrilateral is equal to …………….  right angles .

13.      Two circles are said to be congruent if they have same ………………

14.      Sum of any two side of a triangle is always greater than the ………. third side.

15.      In right ∆ PQR and ABC, if the hypotenuse PR = AC and side PQ = AB, then  ∆ RPQ 

 ……………

16.      Two geometrical figures are congruent if they have exactly the same ……… and ………..

17.      Two triangles are congruent if and only if their corresponding …………..  and the corresponding angles are …………………

18.   If two sides and the ……………. angle of one are equal to  the corresponding sides and the ………… angle of other triangle, then two triangles are congruent

19.   A triangle is …………………. iff any two altitudes are equal.

20.  The medians of an equilateral triangle are ……………………….

21.   Median is also called …………….  in equilateral triangles

22.  Triangle is formed by joining three  ……………………………………………….. points.

23.   A point where two sides of a triangle meet is known as ………………of a triangle.

24.   Every angle of an equilateral triangle is of …………………………………………..measure.

25.   A ……………………………….. triangle has one angle of 90°.

26.   A triangle has …………………………. vertices and…………………………………………sides.

27.   In an …………….. triangle, the remaining two angles are acute

28.   The sum of the measure of all three interior angles of a triangle is ………………………..

29.   A triangle whose two angles are equal is known as ……….…triangle.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Two congruent figure have same :
a). Shape    

b). Size     

c). Color   

d). Both a and b

2. Two figures are said to be similar if they have same :
a). Shape    

b). Size    

c). Color      

d). Both a and b

3. Which of the following is not a congruency rule
a). ASA   

b). SSA    

c). RHS   

d) AAA 

4. Choose the correct statement

     (a) a triangle has two right angles

     (b) all the angles of a triangle are less than 60°

     (c) centroid is the point of intersection of medians

     (d) None of these

5. If ΔABC is congruent to ΔPQR by SSS congruence rule, then:

      (a) ∠C < ∠R                            

      (b) ∠B < ∠Q

      (c) ∠A < ∠P

      (d) ∠A = ∠P, ∠B = ∠Q, ∠C = ∠R

6.   In isosceles triangle ACD and ADB , the congruency rule used in proving ∠ACD ≌ ∠ADB is

(a) ASA                             

         (b) SSS

        (c) AAS                             

       (d) RHS                                                                  

    

7.   In the given figure, find PM

                                                                                   

      (a) 3 cm                              

      (b) 5 cm

      (c) 4 cm                             

      (d) 2 cm

8. In isosceles triangle ABC, AD is the median then ∠BAD is

                                                                                     

          (a) 35°                                

         (b) 70°

         (c) 110°                              

         (d) 55°

9. Which is not a criterion for congruence of triangles ?

(a) SSA                         

(b) SAS                           

(c) ASA                  

(d)  SSS

10. The sum of altitudes of a triangles is ________ than the perimeter of the triangle

(a) Greater                  

(b) equal                    

(c) half                        

(d) less

11. If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of other two angles, then triangles is ___

(a) Acute triangles                                         

(b) right triangles                                                

(c) obtuse triangles                                   

(d) none of these

12. The centroid is the intersection of three ___________ of a triangles

(a) Altitudes                                                   

(b) Medians                                               

(c) Angles bisectors                                 

(d) Perpendicular bisectors

13. The incentre is the intersection of three ___________ of a triangles

(a).Altitudes                                               

(b) Medians                                                         

(c) Angles bisectors                                   

(d) Perpendicular bisectors

14. The orthocentre is the intersection of three ___________ of a triangles

             (a).Altitudes                                               

             (b) Medians                                                          

             (c) Angles bisectors                                               

             (d) Perpendicular bisectors

15. The circumcentre is the intersection of three ___________ of a triangles

(a).Altitudes                                                                   

(b) Medians                                         

(c) Angles bisectors                                                       

(d) Perpendicular bisectors

16. Euler’s line of triangles is the lines which passes through _______________

(a) Orthocenter               

(b) circumcentre           

(c) centroids           

(d) all of these

17. What type of triangle is Δ ABC, where ∠B = ∠C = 71°? 

(a) Equilateral        

(b) Isosceles     

(c) Scalene         

(d) acute

18. What is a triangle that contains no right angle called?

(a) Right      

(b) Oblique     

(c) Opaque            

(d) none of these

TRUE OR FALSE:

1. Every similar figure is congruent.

2. Every congruent figure is similar.

3. Every ATM cards are congruent.

4. Every ATM cards are similar.

5. Every ten rupee coin are congruent.

6. Triangle is a closed figure.

7. Triangle is a type of polygon. 

8 If any two angles and a non-included side of one triangle are equal to the corresponding angles            and side of another triangle respectively, then the two triangles are not congruent………………

9. Angles opposite to two equal sides of a triangle are unequal………………………

10. The sum of any two sides of a triangle is equal to its third side………………….

11. Difference of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side…………...

12. An obtuse triangle may be an equilateral triangles……………………….

13. Scalene triangle cannot be an acute- angled triangle ……………………

14. An isosceles triangle may be a right angled triangle…………………...

15. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3, then triangles is a right angled      triangles………………….

Match The Following     

 1. Traiangle ABC congruence QRP, 

      

     Match the corresponding parts.

                     List- A                                                           List – B

      P)           AB                                                            1)   Angle Q 

      Q)          BC                                                             2)   QP

    

      R)          AC                                                             3)   QR

      S)           Angle A                                                    4)   RP

Code:

             P            Q            R             S

a)      1             2             3              4

b)      1             2             4              3

c)      3             4             2              1

d)     2             3             1              4

BY 
ARANBIR SINGH

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