OBJECTIVES OF LINES AND ANGLES

LINES AND ANGLES

SRINIVASA RAMANUJAN, MAN WHO KNEW INFINITY

TRUE OR FALSE

a) Pairs of vertically opposite angles is always equal
b) The sum of all the interior angles of a triangle is 360
c) If the sum of two adjacent angles is 45, then two adjacent angles are acute angles
d) If a line is perpendicular is one of two parallel lines, then it is also perpendicular to the other
e) Two lines are intersected by any transversal, and then their corresponding angles formed are equal
f) Can we have a triangle where all the interior angles are more than 60
g) Sum of two complimentary angles is equal to 90
h) Sum of all the exterior angles of any polygon is always equal to 360

Fill in the blanks 

1. Sum of two supplementary angles is ______
2. Two lines parallel to the same line is ____  each other
3. An acute angle is always less than _____
4. Angles forming a linear pair are ______
5. If one angle of triangle is equal to the sum of other two angles, then the triangle is_____
6. if two straight lines intersect ,the adjacent angles are ______
7. Two angles whose sum is equal to 360 are known as _________
8. The median of an equilateral triangles are ____________
9. Two angles whose sum is equal to 90 are known as _________
10. The angle comes from the latin word ___________, meaning a ____________
11. Cointerior angles are known as ________________ and _________________
12.   Two angles whose sum is equal to 180 are known as _________
13.  Two angles whose sum is equal to  360 are known as _________
14. COMPLETE TH TABLE
Angle                                          30 80 11 87
Complementary angle

       Supplementary angle

13. The median of an equilateral triangles are ____________
14. A triangle is  isosceles if and only iff two altitudes are ______
15. A triangle is  isosceles if and only if any two altitudes are ______
16. Lines which are parallel to the same line are ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬_____________ to each other.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION:

1. A pair of adjacent angles is called linear pair if the sum of two adjacent angles is?
a)180          b)90         c)270           d)360

2. An exterior angle of the triangle is 110. And its two opposite interior angles are in the ratio 3:4. What are the values of those angles?
a) 50,60             b) 25,30             c) 30,40           d) 40,48

3. If the ll lines are intersected by a transversal, then each pair of corresponding angles so formed is
a)  Equal        b) complementary          c) supplementary     d) none of these

4. An angle is 140 more than its complementary angle, then angle is
a) 30                      b) 53                   c) 50                  d) none of these

5. If the supplementary of an angle is three times its complement, then angle is
a) 40                      b) 35                   c) 50                 d) 45

6. An angle is 18 less than its complementary angle. Then measure of this angle is
a) 36                      b) 48                   c) 83                  d) 81

7. Supplement of an angle is one fourth to itself. The measure of the angle is :
a) 18                     b) 36                     c) 144               d) 81

MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

                    LIST-A                                      LIST-B
              P) corresponding angles             1) ∠1=∠7
                Q) alternate interior angles       2) ∠4+∠5=180
                R) alternate exterior angles       3) ∠1=∠5
               S) co-interior angles                  4) ∠4=∠6

 CODE:        
               P      Q       R      S
a)        4         1        2      3
b)        3         2        4      1
c)        4         2        1      3
d)           3         4        1      2

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OBJECTIVES OF POLYNOMIAL, CLASS: IX

POLYNOMIAL

FATHER OF MODERN MATHEMATICS RENE DESCARTES

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1.The word polynomial comes from ________________

2.The word polynomial was introduced in latin by _______________________

3.Polynomial with one term is known as_______________

4.Polynomial with two term is known as_______________

5.Polynomial with three term is known as______________

6.Polynomial with four term is known as_______________

7.Polynomial with five term is known as _______________

8.Polynomial of degree 1 is known as _________________

9.Polynomial of degree 2 is known as _________________

10.Polynomial of degree 3 is known as _________________

11.Polynomial of degree 4 is known as ___________________ polynomial

12.Polynomial of degree 5 is known as ___________________ polynomial

13.________________  in 1637 introduced the graph of a polynomial equation

14.If the leading coefficient of a univariate polynomial is one , then it is called ______________

15.A polynomial in one variable is called a ___________________polynomial

16.When P(x) is divided by ( x – a), then P(a)represents ________________

17.If P(c) =  0, then ( x - c ) is a __________ of P(x)

18.X^3 + Y^3 + Z^3 = _________ ,if X + Y + Z is zero.

19.X^3 + Y^3 +Z^3 – 3XYZ = K(X+Y+Z){(X-Y)^2 + (Y-Z)^2 + (Z-X)^2}, then k = _______

20.Every ____________ polynomial has zero.

21.The degree of zero polynomial is __________________

22.The value of 3y^3 – 4y + √11 at y = 2 is _______________

23.If x + y = 4 and xy = 6, then the value of x^3 + y^3 = _______

24.A constant polynomial have  _____________ zero

25.A quadratic polynomial have almost _______ zeros

26.A polynomial of degree n have almost ___________ zeroes

27.A constant polynomial zero is known as ___________ polynomial

28.A zero polynomial have ______________ zeros

29.Every real number is a zero/es of the ________ polynomial

30.A zero of a polynomial ______________ be zero

31.A polynomial can have more than _______ zero

32.Every linear polynomial has _______ and only _______ zero

33.Exponent of every polynomial is _______________ number

34.Degree of x^2 + 3x^4 + 66 is _________________

35.Degree of x^2y^2 + x^3y^2 – 2x^3 is ______________

36.Remainder theorem is also known as ___________

TRUE OR FALSE

1.A polynomial have more than one zero.

2.The zero of the polynomial p(x) = 2x – 1 is ½.

3.The remainder when p(x) = 2x^3 – 2x^2 + x – 1 is divided by x + 1 is -12.

4.( x + 1) and ( 2x – 3) are factor of polynomial 2x^2 – 9x + 12.

5.2x+ √2is polynomial.

6.X^2 – x^1/2 is polynomial.

7.Y^2 – 1/y - 2 is polynomial.

8.Is x^4 + 4 = (a^2 + a + 2)(a^2 – a + 2) ?

9.Quadratic polynomial is univariate

10.x^2 + x^3 – 4x^4 is monic.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.  Which one is not a polynomial

      (a)   4x^2 + 2x – 1(b)   y + 3/y(c)   x^3 – 1(d)   y^2 + 5y + 1

2.  The polynomial ax^2 + bx + cx^4 + 5 is 

      (a)   linear           (b) quadratic          (c) cubic            (d)  Biquadratic

3.  Identify the polynomial

      (a)   x^–2 + x^–1 + 5     b) x^1/2 -1/2    (c)  1/x  + (- x)  (d)   3x^2 + 7

4.  The zero of the polynomial p(x) = 2x + 5 is

      (a)   2        (b)   5      (c)   2/5        (d)   -5/2

5.  The number of zeros of x^2 + 4x + 2

      (a)   1      (b)   2      (c)   3      (d)   none of these

6.  The polynomial of type px^2 + qx + r, a = 0 is of type

      (a)   linear      (b)   quadratic     (c)   cubic       (d)   Biquadratic

7.  The value of k, if (x – 1) is a factor of 4x^3 + 3x^2 – 4x + k, is

      (a)   1     (b)   2      (c)   –3       (d)   3

8.  The degree of polynomial p(x) = x+√(x^2+1)  is

      (a)   0     (b)   2      (c)   1       (d)   3

9.  If 3 + 6 – 9 = 0, then the value of (3)3 + (6)3 – (9)3 is

      (a)   260       (b)  –360        (c)  –486   (d)   486

10.  If value of 104 × 96 is

      (a)   9984   (b)   9469      (c)   10234     (d)   11324

11.  The value of 5.63 × 5.63 + 11.26 × 2.37 + 2.37 × 2.37 is

      (a)   237      (b)   126     (c)   56        (d)   64

12.  The value of [(361)^3 (+139)^3)]/[(361)^2-361*139+(139)^2 ] is

      (a)   300  (b)   500   (c)   400     (d)   600

13.  If x + y = 2, x^2 + y^2 = 5 then xy is

      (a)   1    (b)   3      (c)   2       (d)  None of these

14.  If x + 2 is a factor of x^3 – 2ax^2 + 16, then value of a is

      (a)   3    (b)   1    (c)   4   (d)   2

15.  If one of the factor of x^2 + x – 20 is (x - 4). Find the other

      (a)   x – 4   (b)   x + 2      (c)   x + 5        (d)   x – 5

16. which one of the following algebraic expressions is a polynomial in variable x ?

(a)  x2 + 1/x^2             (b) √x+1⁄(√x)               (c) x^2+ (3x)^(3⁄2)/√x    (d) none of these

17. Degree of the polynomial p(x) = ( x + 2 )( x – 2 ) is 

(a) not define            (b) 1                             (c) 0                         (d) 2 

18. If x^3 + y^3 + z^3 = 2k[ ( x – y)^2 + ( y – z)^2 + ( z – x)^2 ] then k is

(a) 1/4                         (b) 1/2                          (c) any real number      (d) not define

19. If both x = 2 and x = ½ are factors of px^2 + 5x + r, then p = 

(a) ¾ r                       (b) 2r                           (c) r/2                         (d) r 

20. Who is the father of polynomials ?

(a) Diophantus           (b) Newton                  (c) Euclid                      (d) Aryabhatta

MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Match or Choices for the correct combination of elements from List-A and list – B are given as options (a), (b), (c) & (d) out of which one is correct.

1. List- B shows the degree of polynomials given in List- A.

                                                                

          List-A                                       List- B

p) 2 – y^2 – y^3 + 2y^8                1) 2

q) 2                                                2) 1

r) 5X - √7                                      3) 0

s) 4 – X^2                                      4) 8         

CODE

                p q r s

            a) 1 3 2 4

            b) 4 3 2 1

            c) 4 2 3 1

            d) 2 3 4 1

2. List – B gives the values of k for polynomials given in List-B when it divided by x – 1

             LIST-A                                LIST – B

p) Kx2 – 3x – 2k                        1)  0

q) X^2 – x + k                            2) -3

r) 2x^2 + kx + 3                      3) (√2-1)/3

s) 3kx^2 - √2x + 1                     4)  -5

CODE

p q r s

a) 2 1 4 3

b) 4 1 3 2

c) 1 4 3 2

d) 2 2 4 1

3. List-B gives value of the polynomials given in List – A at the given points.

            LIST-A                                      LIST-B

p) 3t^3 – 2t^2 + t at t = ½                    1) 2

q) 3x^3 + x^2 – 20x +12 at x = 2/3     2) -1

r) 7u^5-4u^3 + 2 at u = 0                    3) 3/8

s) (3s – 1)(2s-3) at s = 1/2                   4) 0

CODE

    p q r s

a) 1 2 3 4

b) 4 2 1 3

c) 4 3 2 1

d) 3 4 1 2

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MCQ OF WHY DO WE FALL ILL & NATURAL RESOURCES, CLASS: 9TH

WHY DO WE FALL ILL & NATURAL RESOURCES

CLASS: IX

1. Health is.
(A) Complete physical well being
(B) social well being
(C)  mental well being
(D) all of the above

2. Dislocation is a disease caused by
(A) Biological agent
(B) mechanical agent
(C) physical agent
(D) none of these

3. A carrier is a human being that
(A) functions as a reservoir of infection
(B) possesses pathogen but is not harmed
(C) contains antibodies sufficient enough to balance the antigen
(D) all of the above

4. Droplet infection is a mode of.
(A) direct transmission
(B) indirect transmission
(C)pathogen spread through mosquitoes
(D) tomite transmission

5. Specific defence mechanism against disease comprises
(A physical barrier
(B) lysozme
 (C) phagocytes
(D) immune system

6. The antigen present in pathogen is
(A) a specific protein or polysaccharide present on its coat
(B) polysaccharide synthesized by it in the host
(C)a specific protein involved in metabolism
(D) either B, or C.

7. Pathogens are destroyed by
(A) kidneys
(B) liver
(C) tonsils
(D) lymphatic tissues

8. A noninfectious unusual and Unnatural  reaction to a substance or condition is
(A) immunity
(B) allergy
(C) infection
(D) toxin

9. AlDS was first reported in.
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Germany

10. If a person has developed interferon in his body. He seems to carry infection of
(A) Tetanus
(B) Malaria
(C) Measles
(D) Typhoid

11. AIDS day.
(A) 1st May
(B) 20th December 
(C) 1st June 
(D) 1st December

12. Antibodies are.
(A) lipids
(B) genes
(C) proteins
(D) carbohydrates

13. Choose the  correct statements ?
(A) Degenerative diseases are non communicable
(B) Allergy is caused by droplet infection
(C) Cholera is a viral disease
(D) AIDS can be prevented by vaccination.

14. Remain healthy means
(A) free of infection by pathogen
(B)Living in a pollution free environment
(C) tension free mental status
(D) All of the above

15. Diseases occurring due to infected articles of a patient are called
(A) Air borne
(B) Water borne
(C) Fomite borne
(D) Food bome

16. World Health Day Is On.
(A) 1ST May
(B) 7TH April
(C) 30th June
(D) 5th December

17. Which are intimately related.
(A) Diseases and health
(B) Body and spiritual health
(C) Mind & body
(D) Body and health

18. Pulse polio programme is organised in our country for.
(A) curing polio
(B) eradicating polio
(C) spreading polio
(D) non of the above

19. Community health aims at.
(A) better health and family planning
(B) better hygiene and clean environment
(C) removing communicable diseases
(D) all of the above

20. Head quarter of work Health Organisation(WHO) is located at.
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Paris
(D) none of these

21. Soil is a part of
(A) atmosphere
(B) lithosphere
(C) hydrosphere
(D) ionosphere

22. Maximum air in which we breath is present at
(A) troposphere
B) stratosphere
C) ionosphere
D) mesosphere

23. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as
(A) sedimentary cycles
(B) gaseous cycles
(C) material cycles
(D) cycles of water

24. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil ?
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Rhizobium
(D) pseudomonas

25. Carbondioxide and Oxygen gas balance in atmosphere is due to
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) respiration
(C) leaf anatomy
(D) photorespiration

26. Nitrogen fixation is
(A) Nitrogen Ammonia
(B) Nitrogen nitrates
(C) Nitrogen Amino acid
(D) Both A and B

27. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(A) deforestation
(B) afforestation
(C) overgrazing
(D) removal of vegetation

28. A renewable source of energy is
(A) petroleum
(B) coal
(C) nuclear fuel
(D) Nine of these

29. Percentage of nitrogen in air is
(A) 77.02%
(B) 78.09%
(C) 76.08%
(D) 74.09%

30. Ozone layer is present in atmosphere in
(A) troposphere
(B) stratosphere
(C) mesosphere
(D) thermosphere

31. Nodules in the roots of legume plants contain
(A) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(B) sulphur fixing bacteria
(C) potassium fixing bacteria
(D) none of the above

32. Which gas is manly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer ?
(A) oxygen
(B) CFC
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) All of the above

33. Acid rain mainly contains
(A) nitric acid
(B) hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid
 (D) both (A) and (C)

34. Plants and animals are known as
(A) biotic resources
(B) Abiotic resources
(C) machines
(D) none of these

35. Coal is an / a
(A) exhaustible resource
(B) inexhaustible resource
(C) potential resource
(D) none of these

36. Ozonosphere occurs at height of
(A) 8-10km above poles
(B) 8-10km above equator
(C) 20-26 km above the earth surface
(D) 11-16km above equator

37. Biosphere is made of
(A) living beings and their remains
(B) living beings, lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
(C) living beings and lithosphere
(D) living beings, lithosphere and hydrosphere.

38. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(A) deforestation
(B) afforestation
(C) overgrazing
(D) removal of vegetation

39. Which one of the following is renewable resource ?
(A) water
(B) Metals
(C) Fossil fuel
(D) All of these

40. Which gas is responsible for the global warming
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen 
(D) Carbondioxide

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF NUMBER SYSTEM, CLASS: IX

NUMBER SYSTEM

ARCHIMEDES - FATHER OF MATHEMATICS

FILL  UPS:

1. There are _______________ rational numbers between two rational numbers.
2. If m is natural numbers & 4<m<9,  then √m  is a/an ______________ numbers.
3. Decimal expansion of irrational number are _____________   and __________
4. Non-terminating and repeating decimal expansion is a/an_______________ numbers.
5. A rational number of the form p/q, where p, q∈Z and H.C.F(p,q) is _____________
6. 55 * 52 + 5 = _________
7. Log(mn) = log __ + log __
8. Log100 = ______
9. loga = _____
10. Every ________ number is a whole number.
11. All counting number together with 0 constitute a set of  ___________ number.
12. The two rational number which are their own multiplicative inverses are  ________
13. Decimal form of irrational number are neither ______________ nor ____________
14. If a and b are two positive rational numbers, then √((a+b)/2) is __________ number.
         p/q: q≠0, then p and q are  _________________
15. The greatest amongest ∛(4,) ∜5&∜3 is _________________
16. ____________ known as the father of mathematics.
17. ____________ known as the father of modern mathematics.
18. Decimal expansion of Rational number is either ___________ or _________ & _________

TRUE OR FALSE:

1. Every whole number is natural number.
2. Multiplcative inverse of 2/3 is -2/3
3. Every natural number is a whole number
4. Every integer is a whole number
5. Some whole number is an integer
6. Every whole number is an integer
7. Every real number is a rational number
8. Every rational number is a rational number
9. Some rational number is a rational number
10. Some whole number is a natural number
11. Every irrational number is a whole number
12. Irrational and real number together form rational number
13. Natural number together with zero a whole number
14. Between every two rational number their exist infinite number
15. Between two rational number their finite irrational number
16. Terminating or non-terminating but recurring is a rational number
17. The sum of an irrational number and non-zero rational number is always an irrational numbers.
18. 2& 5 are twin prime number
19. Zero is even number
20. Square of every real number is positive number.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. which of the following are co-prime numbers
              (a)   2, 3           (b)   2, 4          (c)   2, 8          (d)   2, 12

       2. A rational number equivalent to 5/7  is
    (a) 18/17    (b)  28/27        (c) 10/14          (d)   10/27


        3. An example of a whole number is
             (a)   0      (b)  -1/2            (c)   11/5         (d)   –7

      4. Given a rational number -5/9. This rational number can also be known as
             (a)   a natural number     (b)   positive integers      (c)   a fraction    (d)   a real number

       5. The rational number 0.3333……can also be written as
             (a)   0.3                (b)  3/10              (c)   0.33                  (d)   1/3      e) None of these

       6. If the decimal form of a number is non-terminating, non-repeating then the number is
      (a)   a natural number                             (b)   a rational number                                                               (c)   a whole number                               (d)   an irrational number          (e) none of these
 
7.  Select the following number whose square root  is rational
           (a)   7           (b)   1.96         (c)   0.04           (d)   13           e) 12.1

8. The number 1.101001000100001... is
               (a)   a natural number                              (b)   a whole number
                (c)   a rational number                              (d)   an irrational number
9. The number 1.200200200200002... is
               (a)   a natural number                              (b)   a whole number
             (c)   a rational number                             (d)   an irrational number

         10 . Decimal expansion of irrational number is
                a)  Recurring     b) Terminating        c) Terminating and recurring         d) none of these

     11. Decimal expansions of rational number is
                a) terminating                                         b) repeating
                c) non-terminating but recurring             d) all of these

     12. Unit digit of 824 is
               a) 8             b) 4              c) 0          d) 1               e) none of these

     13. which of the following has terminating decimal expansions
               a) 1/3         b) 5/6            c) 7/2           d) 2/15

      14.  The 100 root of (10)^(10)^(10)is
             a) 10^(8^10 )                    b) 10^(10^8 )          c)(√10)^((√10)^10 )        d) 10^(√10^(√10) )

      15. which of the following can be written as p/q
               a) 0.195195……    b) 0.10100……      c)  0.23452346……….    d) 0.5656566……

      16. How many irrational number between 1/3 & 1/7 is :
               a) one               b) two                c) three          d) not defined           e) none of these

      17. The product of √3& ∛5is:
                a) √(6&375)             b) √(6&575)                c)√(6&475)                d) √(6&675)

       18. Which of the following  a rationalization factor of √450
               a) √3               b) √5                        c)√2                           d) None of these

       19. Which of the following numbers does not lies between 3/5 and 4/5
              a) 2/3              b) 7/10                     c) 11/15                       d) None of these

      20. If a and b are integers with a >b. The  integers lies between a and b is
           a) a - b                 b) a – b - 1              c) a – b + 1                   d) none of these

      21. The unit digit of 22.33.44 is
           a) 4                b) 2             c) 8              d) 1         e) None of these

      22. The unit digit of 7735 is
           a) 7                       b) 9                         c) 1                              d) None of these

       23. √x√y=√(xy)  is true when
          a)  x>0,y>0            b) x>0,y<0           c)x<0,y>0         d) All of these

      24. A rational number between √3&√5 is:
           a)(√3+√5)/2                    b) (√3*√5)/2                   c) 1.5                    d) None of these

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF CELL AND TISSUE PART - B, CLASS: IX

CELL AND TISSUE PAT - B, 

CLASS: IX

1. The entire body surface and cavities inside the body are lined by

(A) muscle tissue (B) epithelial tissue (C)connective tissue (D) nervous tissue (E) none of these

2. Which one of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(A)Areolar tissue (B) cartilage (C) Blood (D) Ligaments

3. The tissue that attaches muscles to the bones is

(A) cartilage (B) tendon (C) ligament (D) blood

4. The tissue that joins one bone to the other is

(A) ligament (B) tendon (C) blood (D) ) cartilage

5. Areolar tissue is a

(A) nervous tissue (B) muscular tissue (C) connective tissue (D) epithelial tissue

6. Tendon is a structure which connects

(A) a bone with another bone  (B) a muscle with a bone (C) a never with a muscle (D) a muscle with a muscle

7. Fluid part of blood after removal of corpuscles is

(A) plasma (B) lymph (C) serum (D) vaccine

8. Which of the following structures joins skeletal muscle to bone ?

(A)Ligament (B)Tendon (C)Blood (D) Bone

9. Yellow muscle fibers are also called as31

(A) bone (B) muscle (C) ligament (D) none of these

10. Ligament joins

(A) bone the muscle (B) muscle to muscle (C) bone to bone (D) none of these

11. The entire body surface and cavities inside the body are lined by

(A) nervous tissue (B) epithelial tissue (C)muscle tissue (D) none of these

12. Which one of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(A)Areolar tissue (B) cartilage (C) Blood (D) Ligaments

13. The tissue that attaches muscles to the bones is

(A) cartilage (B) tendon (C) ligament (D) blood

14. The tissue that joins one bone to the other is

(A) ligament (B) tendon (C) blood (D) ) cartilage

15. Areolar tissue is a

(A) nervous tissue (B) muscular tissue (C) connective tissue (D) epithelial tissue

16. Tendon is a structure which connects

(A) a bone with another bone (B) a never with a muscles

(C)  a muscle with a bone (D) a muscle with a muscle

17. Fluid part of blood after removal of corpuscles is

(A) plasma (B) lymph (C) serum (D) vaccine

18. Which of the following structures joins skeletal muscle to bone ?

(A)Ligament (B)Tendon (C)Blood (D) Bone

19. Yellow muscle fibers are also called as31

(A) bone (B) muscle (C) ligament (D) none of these

20. Ligament joins

(A) bone the muscle (B) muscle to muscle (C) bone to bone (D) none of these

21. Contraction and relaxation are unique features of

(A) epithelial tissue (B) connective tissue (C) muscle tissue (D) none of these

22. The tissue which is under the control of animal’s will is

(A) cardiac muscle (B) striated muscle (C) non-striated muscle (D) cartilage

23. The muscle which work throughout life without undergoing fatigue is

(A) striated muscle (B) non-striated muscle (C) ) cardiac muscle (D) all of the above (E) none of these

24. Which of the following is a voluntary muscle ?

(A) striated muscle (B) Unstriated muscle (C) ) cardiac muscle (D) (A) and(B)

25. Wall of urinary bladder consists of

(A) striated muscle (B) Unstriated muscle (C) both (A) and (B)   (D) none of these

26. Intercalated discs are present in

(A) striated muscle (B) Unstriated muscle (C) ) cardiac muscle (D) all of the above (E) none of these

27. The function unit of nervous tissue is called as

(A) cyton (B) synapse (C) neuron (D) axon

28. Which type of tissue forms spinal cord and brain ?

(A) muscle tissue (B) Nervous tissue (C) epithelial tissue (D) Epidermis

29. Involuntary tissue forms wall of which of the following organ ?

(A) intestine (B) stomach (C) bronchi (D) all of the above

30. Movements in body are brought about by

(A) muscle tissue (B) epithelial tissue

(C) Bones (D) tendons and ligaments

31. Classification reflecting the evolutionary interrelationships of organisms is called

(A) Phylogenetic classification (B) artificial classification

(C) Natural classification (D) numerical classification

32. Principles and rules of classification are studied under

(A) systematics (B)natural classification (C) nomenclature (D) taxonomy

33. Two kingdom classification was given by

(A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) ) Copeland (D) Whittaker

34. Three kingdom classification was proposed by

(A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) ) Whittaker (D) Lamarck

 41

35. Five kingdom Whittaker was proposed by

(A) Linnaeus (B) ) Whittaker (C) john Ray (D) Lamarck

36. Thallophyta includes

(A) fungi and bacteria (B) algae, fungi, animals and lichens

(C) Algae, fungi and lichens (D) algae and fungi

37. Flowering plants are included under

(A) cryptogams (B) phanerogams (C) bryophytes (D) pteridophytes

38. Which of the following has an embryo but lacks vascular tissue ?

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta

(C) Gymnosperms (D) angiosperms

39. Algae are characterized by (or) algae differ from bryophytes in

(A) aquatic habit (B) Thalloid plant body

(C) Pyrenoids (D) unicelled sex organs

40. The most primitive vascular plants are –

(A) bryophytes (B) pteridophytes

(C) Gymnosperms (D) angiosperms

41. Identification, nomenclature and

Classification of organisms is called

(A) Morphology (B) Ecology (C) Taxonomy (D) Phytogeography

42. Who is know as father of taxonomy?

(A) Mendel (B) Linnaeus (C) Drawing (D) Crick

43. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by

(A) John Ray (B) A.P. de Candolle (C) A.L.de Jussen (D) Carolus Linnaeus

44. The basic unit of classification is

(A) Variety (B) species (C) genus (D) family

45. A group of freely interbreeding organisms constitutes a

(A) species (B) genera (C) family (D) class

46. According to binomial nomenclature, the scientific name of an organism must

consists of two words. these are

(A) species and tribe (B) genus and species (C) order and family (D) genus and family

47. Which taxonomic term may be substituted for any rank in the classification?

(A) class (B) Geuns (C) Species (D) Taxon

48. Cryptogams include

(A) thallophytes (B) bryophytes (C) pteridophytes (D) all of the above

49. Algae are characterized by

(A) Pyrenoids (B) aquatic habital (C) unicellular sex organs (D) all of the above

50. In Whittaker’s classification, unicellular organisms are grouped under

(A) protista (B) porifera (C) fungi (D) protozoa

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF CELL AND TISSUE, PART - A, CLASS: IX

CELL AND TISSUE

CLASS: IX

TYPE - 1

1. The mode of nutrition in all fungi is characteristically
(A) Symbiotic (B) autotrophic (C) holozoic (D) saprotrophic

2. The reserve food in fungi is
(A) starch (B) cyanophycean starch
(C) glycogen (D) glycogen and fat

3. The algal partner of a lichen is called as
(A) Mycobiont (B) Phycobiont
(C) Both of the (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

4. Pteridophytes are known as
(A) sea plants (B) vascular cryptogames
(C) club mosses (D) horse tails

5. Gymnosperms are characterized by
(A) non-motile male gametes (B) naked seeds
(C) Winged seeds (D) true fruits

6. Which one is mismatched?
(A) Flagella …………. Euglena (B) Pseudopodia ………… Amoeba
(C) Cilia ………Paramecium (D) Flagella ……….. Plasmodium

7. Contractile vacuole is present in
(A) Amoeba (B) Euglena
(C) Paramecium (D) All of the above

8. ‘Venus flower basket’ is the dried skeleton of
(A) Euspongia (B) Euplectella (C) Spongilla (D) Leucosolenia

9. Choanocytes are unique to
(A) Protozoa (B) Porifera (C) Mollusca (D) Echinodermata

10. Cnidaria is characterised by
(A) nematoblasts (B) coelenteron
(C) tissue level of organisation (D) all of the above

11. Mesoglea is characteristic of
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Cnidaria (D) Mollusca

12. True jelly fish (e.g., Aurelia) belongs to class
(A) Hydrozoa (B) Anthozoa (C) Scyphozoa (D) Both B and C

13. Polymorphism is exhibited by
(A) Hydra (B) Physalia (C) ) Octopus (D) Crab

14. Comb jellies belong to
(A) Scyphozoa (B) Hydrozoa (C) Ctenophora (D) Both A and B

15. Platyhelminthes are called
(A) round worms (B) flat worms (C) blind worms (D) none of the above

16. In Platyhelminthes, the excertory organs are.
(A) nephridia (B) malpighian tubules
(C) flame cells (solenocytes) (D) green glands

17. Platyhelminthes are
(A) coelomates (B) pseudiocoelomates (C) ) haemocoelomates (D) Acoelomates

18. The common name for Ascaris is
(A) shipworm (B) pinworm (C) tapeworm (D) round worm

19. Metamerism is characteristic feature of
(A) Chordata (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Nematoda

20. The excretory organs of Annelida are
(A) nephridia (B) statocysts (C) archeocytes (D) none of the above

TYPE - 2

1. The first person to observe a cell under microscope was
(A) M. Schleiden
(B) T. Schwann
(C) Robert Hook
(D) A.V.Leeuwenhoek

2. Cell theory was propounded by
(A) Morgan
(B) Halden
(C) Schleiden and Schwann
(D) Robert Hooke

3. The word cell was coined by
(A) Robert hooke
(B) Weismann
(C) Cuvier
(D) Darwin

4. Nucleus discovered by
(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Robert Brown
(C) Dujardin
(D) Purkinje

5. Smallest cells so far known are
(A) Bacteria
(B) blue green algae
(C) PPLOs
(D) human egg

6. Which of the following is the longest cell of animal kingdom?
(A)Bacteria
(B) Nerve cell
(C) Virus
(D) Muscle cell

7. Which one of the following is an example of prokaryotic cell?
(A)Typical plant cell
(B) Typical animal cell
(C) Bacteria
(D) None of these

8. What is cytology?
(A) Study of cytoplasm
(B) Study of structure and composition of cell
(C) Study of animal cell only
(D) Study of cell only

9. Who coined term protoplasm?
(A)Leeuwenhoek
(B) Purkinje
(C) Robert hooke
(D) Robert Brown

10. Cell is
(A) Hereditary unit of life 
(B) Structural unit of life
(C) Functional unit of life
(D) all of the above

11. What is more abundant in smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
( A) Cistemae and vesicle
(B) Tubules
(C) Tubules and vesicles
(D) Cistemae

12. Mitochondria are concerned with
(A) Kreb cycle
(B) C, cycle
(C) glycolysis
(D) none of the above

13. Which of the following organelle is the site of Kreb cycle?
(A) Ribosome’s
(B) Lysosomes
(C) eukaryotic cells
(D) Nucleus

14. Mitochondria are absent in
(A) Prokaryotic cells
(B) RBC of mammals
(C) eukaryotic cells
(D) (A) and (B) Both

15. Mitochondria stores energy in from of
(A) Heat energy
(B) ATP
(C) light energy
(D) none of the above

16. The ATP synthesizing units of Mitochondria are
(A) Oxysomes
(B) peroxysomes
(C) glyoxysomes
(D) lysosomes

17. Lipid synthesis is performed by
(A) Rough ER
(B) smooth ER
(C) both of above
(D) none of the above

18. Who observed Mitochondria at first?
(A) Porter
(B) Palade
(C) Koliker
(D) Camilo Golgi

19. Detoxification of body is done by?
(A) Mitochondria
(B) lysosomes
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

20. Golgi apparatus is made of
(A) Cisternae
(B) vesicles
(C) golgian vacuoles
(D) all of the above

21.Which of the following is called as ‘Suicidal bags’ ?
(A) Centrosome
(B) Lysosome
(C) Microsome
(D) Mesosomes

22. Eukaryotic ribosomes are
(A) 30s
(B) 50s
(C) 80s
(D) 70s

23. Plastids that are white in colour (Pigment free)
(A)chloroplast
(B) lysosome
(C) leucoplast
(D) Chromoplast

24. Striking difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is due to the presence
(A) mitochondria
(B) plasma membrane
(C) cell wall
(D) ribosome

25. Tonoplast is the membrane surrounding the
(A) cytoplasm
(B) vacuole
(C) nucleus
(D) mitochondria

26. Lysosomes are responsible for
(A) protein synthesis
(B) digestion of organic molecules
(C)fat synthesis
(D) fat emulsification

27. In prokaryotic cell
(A) nucleus is developed
(B) membrane bounded organelles are present
(C) double membrane bounded organelles are absent
(D) none of these

28. A typical plant cell contains
(A) cell well
(B) plastids
(C) large vacuole
(D) all of the above

29. The waste disposal system of cell is formed by
(A) lysosomes
(B) peroxysomes
(C) mitochondria
(D) glyoxysomes

30. In which cell Centriole is absent ?
(A) plant cell
(B) Animal cell
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above

31 A group of cells having common origin and performing similar function is called
(A) tissue
(B) organ
(C) organ system
(D) cell aggregate

32. Meristems are cells that
(A) store food
(B) help in excretion
(C) provide support
(D) divide continuously to produce new cells

33. Plant length is increased by the activity of
(A) apical meristem
(B) lateral meristem
(C) cambium
(D) all of the above

34. In plants, cell division is restricted to
(A) Meristematic cells
(B) permanent cells
(C) xylem
(D) phloem

35. In grasses the length of increases by the activity of
(A) apical meristem
(B) intercalary meristem
(C) lateral meristem
(D) none of these

36. Special feature of dividing cells is
(A) large lacuna (B) thick cell walls
(C) dense cytoplasm devoid of lacuna (D) large intercellular spaces

37. Totipotency is present in
(A) meristem
(B) cambium
(C) phloem
(D) cork

38. Which of the following is a feature of Meristematic tissues ?
(A) Thin cell wall
(B) Compact tissue
(C) Large no. of cell organelles are present in the cells of tissues.
(D) All of the above

39. Which of the following plant tissue is formed by permanent tissue ?
(A) primary tissue
(B) Secondary tissue
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above

40. Which of the following plant tissues causes growth in girth of stem and root ?
(A) Apical meristem
(B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem
(D) None of the above

41. A permanent tissue of plant consisting of thin walled living cells is
(A) parenchyma
(B) collenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma
(D) xylem

42. A permanent plant tissue made up of living cell having thickening at the corners is
A) Sclerenchyma
(B) collenchyma
(C) parenchyma
(D) phloem

43. The main function of Sclerenchyma is to help in the
(A) conduction of food
(B) synthesis of food
(C) exchange of gases
(D) mechanical support

44. The wall of cork cells are thickened by the deposition of
(A) cutin
(B) suberin
(C) lignin
(D) pectin

45. The wax like substance present in the cell wall of onion skin is
(A) pectin
(B) lignin
(C) cellulose
(D) suberin

46. The outer wall of epidermis in stems and leaves has a waxy covering made up of
(A) lignin
(B) suberin
(C) pectin
(D) cutin

47. Collenchyma differs from Sclerenchyma in
(A) retaining cytoplasm at maturity
(B) having thick walls
(C) having a wide lumen
(D) being Meristematic

48. Lignified elongated bead cells are
(A) parenchyma
(B) collenchyma
(C) sclerenchyma
(D) Epidermis

49. Which of the following plant tissue lacks protoplasm at maturity ?
(A) Sclerenchyma
(B) Collenchyma
(C) parenchyma
(D) Epidermis

50. In plants phloem tissues perform the function of
(A) conduction of water
(B) conduction of food
(C) photosynthesis
(D) mechanical support




BY 
ARANBIR SINGH

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