MCQ OF ANCIENT INDIA BASED ON NTSE EXAM

ANCIENT INDIA

      1. What was built in Lothal to facilitate the ships?

         a. Hall           b.  Dockyard                 c. Pillar             d. Grill

        2. Who is known as the first keertankar of Maharashtra ?

           a. Saint Dnyaneshwar       b. Saint Tukaram     c. Saint Namdev    d. Saint Ekanth

       3. The sixteen Mahajanapadas are mentioned:

           a. Mahabharta       b. Ramayana            c. Anguttara Nikaya        d. Lalit Vistar

       4. The capital vasta mahajanapada was:

           a. Champa             b. Ujjain                   c. Kaushambi                  d. Patliputra 

        5. Father of history is called: 

           a. Dymekus           b. Talmy                  c. Herodotus                    d. None of theses

        6. Satakarni was the ruler of which dynasty?

             a. Chola                 b. Gupta                  c. Kushana                       d. Satavahana 

        7. During seventeen century B.C. the form of buddism was famous as:

            a. Mahayana         b. Hinayana              c. Vajrayana                   d. Sahajyan

         8. Who  was the direct descendents of stone age civilizations and creator of Mohen – jo –                          Daro’s Sindh culture ?

           a. Aryans            b.  Mongoloids           c. Dravidians                    d. Armenoids 

        9. Which veda is known as Gangotri of Music ?

             a. Rigveda           b. Atharvavedas        c Yujurveda                      d. Samaveda

       10. Which ancient university was situated at Badgaon village of Patna in Bihar ? 

            a. Takshashila      b. Vallabhi               c. Nalanda                         d. Vikramshila

      

           11.  Name the Indian mathematician who discovered zero. 

           ( a)  Aryabhatta       (b) Bhaskaracharya  (c) Bramagupta             (d) Lilawati

       

          12. Which book of Maths had been written by Bhaskaracharya?

             (a) Aryabhattiyam       (b) Lilavati Ganit       (c) Dash Gitika       (d) Arya Siddhanth 

      

           13.Samrat Ashok was ruler of 

              (a) Bhopal  (b)  Patliputra  (c) Delhi      (d) Vidisha

              I4. Most powerful ruler of Gupta dynasty was :

              (a) Shri Gupta (b) Kumar Gupta (c) Skanda Gupta (d) Samudra Gupta

     

              15. The Rath temples at Mahaballipuram were built by 

                (a) Cholas  (b) Pallavas (c) Chedis (d) Chalukyas 

                16  Who was the ruler of 'Vatsa’  during the time of Buddha?

                  (a) Bodhi (b) Udayana (c) Satanika (d) Nichakshu 

              17. Which is the world's largest Epic?

                  (a) Ramayana (b) Ettutokai Patthuppattu (d) Maiinht„.

               18. In which literature a collection of dialogues between () Buddha and his disciples is                             given?  

                  (a) Sutta Pitaka (b) Vinaya Pitaka (c) (c) Abhidhamma Pitaka (d) Milinda Panha 

               19. Give the name of race known as creator of Mohen-jo-Daro Culture. 

 (a) Australoid (Nishad People) (b) Dravidian (c) Aryans (d) Negroid (Habsi People)  (e) None of theses

             20. Black complexion, broad hand, flat nose, short height etc. were the physical features of                      the tribe called............. 

                  (a) The Dravidians (b) The Armenoids (c) The Mongoloids (d) The Austroloids 

         

               21.  Goethe ( German poet) was so much impressed by reading which drama that he put it                        on  his head and danced with joy? 

                   (a) Malavikagnimitram         (b) Vikramorvasiyam           (c) Abhigyan Shakuntalam                           (d) Mahavir Charitam 

           22. Big Bath has been found in which of the Indus valley site?

                (a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro Lothal (d) Chanhudaro 

            23. Which statement about the position of women in the Rig Vedic society is not true?

                (a) They enjoyed high status in the society. 

                (b) Parda system and child marriages were prevalent. 

                 (c) They had right to higher education. 

                 (d) Dowry was not known.  

           24. When did the first urbanization take place?

               (a) In the new stone age (b) in the Indus Valley civilization (c) During the Mauryan period                     (d) During the Gupta period 

           25. Which ruler of ancient India is known as Devanam Piya Priyadasi?

                     (a) Bindusar (c) Ashoka (b) Chandra Gupta Maurya (d) Brihadratha 

          26. What are tripitakas? 

(a) Vedic Literature (b) Compilation of Buddha's sermons  (c) Main principles of Lord Mahavira 

(d) Compilation of account of Alexander's invasion into India (e) None of theses

         27. Tripitaki texts are related with which religion? 

                      (a) Vedic religion (b) Buddhism (c) Jainism (d) Shaivism

          28. The language of sangam literature was

                    (a) Tamil (b) Bengali (c) Hindi (d) Marathi

          29. Ashoka was the son of 

                   (a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Brihadratha (c) Bindusar (d) Ramagupta  

           30. The thinker Confucius belonged to the country 

                   (a) England (b) America (c) China (d) Japan 

            31. By whom 'Saka Era' was started? 

                  (a) Kanishka (b) Ashoka (c) Harshrardhan (d) Chandra Gupta civilization was 

            32. Which city was founded by Sikandar Lodi?

                    (a) Allahabad  (b) Sikandarabad (c) Jaunpur   (d) Agra  Indus valley

           33. The great bath of the Indus valley civilizations was discovered in 

                   (a) Harappa     (b) Lothal   (c) Mohenjodaro    (d) Ropar

            34. Lothal is stitauted in

                   (a) Maharashtra     (b) Rajasthan    (c) Pakistan   (d) Gujarat 

          

            35. Samaveda means:

                (a)  The Book of Knowledge  (b) The Book of Music  (c) The Book of Nature
           (d) The Book of religions
         
         36, The capital of Kuru was :
          (a) Mathura  (b) Takshashila  (c) Hastinapur   (d) Shravasti
       
        37. During the invasion on India which Greek intellect ccompanied Alexander?
       a) Herodotus Nearchus   (b) Strabo    (c) Nearchus  (d) Arian
     
          38. Which of the following  city is not related with Indus civilization?
               a Mohenjodaro     (b) Kalibanga       (c) Lothal      (d) Patliputra
       
            39. Which of the follow ing was the oldest veda?
              (a) Rigveda (b) Samveda (c) Atharvaveda (d) Yajurveda

            40. Founder of Gupta Dynasty was:
           (a)  Shri Gupta  (b) Kumar Gupta   (c)   Skanda Gupta   (d)  Samudra Gupta
 
              41. Huen Tsang came in the period of
               (a) Rajvardhan (b) Harshavardhan (C) Balivardhan (d) Shrivardhan

            42. Which city was established by Harihar-Bukka?
              (a) Bahmani  (b) Delhi (c) vijaynagar (d) Mohammad Nagar

            43. Jeevak, the first surgeon, was of

             (a) Varanasi (b) Takshila (c) Rajgrih (d) Pataliputra

             44. Which pillar inscription describes about ‘Samudragupta'?
           (a) Prayag Prashasti (b) Girinar Prashasti (c) Mehrauli Prashasti (d) Sarnath Prashasti

            45. Which epic describes about the Indraprastha Nagar'?
           (a) Ramayan (b) Mahabharata (c) Rigveda (d) Mudra Rakshasa

            46. The reign of ______  witnessed the golden age of Mesopotamia.
            (a) Nebuchadnezzar (b) Summu Abu (c) Hammurabi (d) Saragan I

            47. ‘Zend Avesta' is the holy book of the __________
             (a) Greeks (b) Romans (c) Parsees (d) Egypt

            48. Among the following who is called 'Light of Asia'?
              (a) Mahavira (b) Buddha (c) Akbar (d) Ashoka

           49. The Upanishads are
            (a)  book on social behavior man (b) books of ancient Hindu law
            (c) a source of Hindu philosophy (d) prayers to God

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MCQ OF SOURCES OF ENERGY, CLASS: X

SOURCES OF ENERGY

CLASS: X

1. Solar energy can be used to produce :

(A) electrical energy (B) heat energy (C) mechanical energy (D) all of the above (E) none of these

2. The energy processed by wind is :

(A) kinetic energy (B) potential energy (C) thermal energy (D) sound energy (E) none of these

3. The fuel used in a stream engine is :

(A) water (B) carbon monoxide (C) oxygen (D) none of these

4. A solar cell convert heat and light energy into :

(A) heat energy (B) sound energy (C) electrical energy (D) wind energy. (E) none of these

5. Biogas is a mixture of :

(A) Carbon monoxide , hydrogen gas and methane  (B) Carbon monoxide , hydrogen gas 

(C) Carbon dioxide , hydrogen gas and methane (D) none of these

6. The sources of energy which are being produced continuously in nature and are inexhaustible are called :

(A) conventional sources (B) non-conventional sources (C) non-renewable sources (D) none of these

7. Choose the source of energy which is different from others :

(A) Wood (B) Falling water (C) Wind (D) Petroleum (E) none of these

8. The vast amount of sea weeds present in oceans may provide an endless source of :

(A) hydro energy (B) ocean thermal energy (C) methane (D) none of these

9. Energy available from the oceans is :

(A) OTE (B) sea-waves energy (C) tidal energy (D) all of the above (E) none of these

10. Radiations used to get relief from bodyaches are :

(A) I.R.radiations (B) U.V. radiations (C) Visible radiations (D) None of these

11. Wood is a :

(A) primary fuel (B) liquid fuel (C) processed fuel (D) secondary fuel (E) none of these

12. Which of the following is as example of fossil fuel ?

(A) Coal gas (B) Coke (C) Natural gas (D) Producer gas (E) none of these

13. The device in which the nuclear fission and release of energy is controlled, is known as :

(A) Thermopile (B) Thermostat (C) Nuclear reactor (D) Cloud chamber (E) none of these

14. For a sustained chain reaction, the reproduction factor should be :

(A) 1 (B)  10  (C) infinite  (D)  none of these

15. Role of Moderator  in nuclear reactor for :

(A) slowing neutrons (B) accelerating neutrons (C) stopping neutrons (D) heating the neutrons (E) none of these

16. The fusion reaction occur at :

(A) low pressures (B) low temperature (C) extremely high temperature (D) high temperature and low pressures

17. The source of energy of the sun is :

(A) Nuclear fission (B) Chemical reaction (C) Nuclear fusion (D)  All of these  (E) None of these

18. The number of neutrons in an atom X of atomic number Z and mass number A is :-

(A) zero (B) Z (C) A - Z (D) A (E) none of these

19. When a beta particle is given out, the atomic number of the parent atom :

(A) Increase by unity (B) Decrease by unity (C) Remains the same (D) Is halved

20.. Which have least penetrating power ?

(A) Alpha particles (B) Gamma rays (C) Beta particles (D) All have the same penetrating power (E) none of these

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MCQ OF OUR ENVIRONMENT & ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE CLASS: X

OUR ENVIRONMENT & ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE

CLASS: X

1. Ecosystem term was coined by
(A) Odum (B) Mishra (C) Reiter (D) Tansley

2. Pyramids of biomass are
(A) upright or inverted (B) always inverted (C) mostly upright (D) mostly inverted

3. Vultures in an ecosystem are
(A) predators (B) scavengers (C) consumers (D) top carnivores

4. In which of the following trophic levels in any ecosystem the maximum energy is stored ?
(A) Producers (B) Herbivores (C) Carnivores (D) Top carnivores (E) None of these

5. In an ecosystem the
(A) primary producers are more than that of primary consumers
(B) secondary consumers are largest, because they are powerful
(C) primary consumers are out of number
(D) primary consumers are least dependent upon primary producers

6. In an ecosystem the function of the produces is to
(A) convert organic compounds into inorganic compounds (B) trap solar energy and convert in into chemical energy
(C) utilize chemical energy (D) release energy (E) none of these

7. The importance of ecosystem lies in
(A) flow of energy (B) cycling of materials (C) both of the above (D) none of the above

8. A biosphere is composed of
(A) living organisms
(B) living organisms and lithosphere
(C) living organisms, lithosphere and atmosphere
(D) living organisms, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere

9. Pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem is
(A) always inverted (B) always upright
(C) both upright and inverted (D) first upright then inverted

10. Which one of these is likely to have been absent in free form at the time of origin of life ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Ammonia (D) Methane

11. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in man ?
(A) Vermiform appendix (B) Plica seminualris (C) Ear muscles (D) Epiglottis

 12. The famous book “Origin of Species” was written by Charles Darwin in
(A) 1809 (B) 1859 (C) 1885 (D) 1871
13. Charles Darwin toured in a ship for five years it was
(A) Vikrant (B) Phillips (C) Alexander (D) Beagle

14. The term evolution in Biology means that
(A) fossils are old (B) life began in Sea
(C) living things constantly change (D) none of the above

15. The theory of Natural selection of Darwin to explain organic evolution was based on
(A) modification in organs through used and disuse
(B) probability of reproduction, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
(C) Inheritance of acquired characters
(D) appearance of sudden large variations, then inheritance and survival of those having these variations

16. Homologus structures have
(A) similar origin & dissimilar function (B) dissimilar origin but similar function
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

17. Analogous organs are those which are
(A) structurally similar (B) functionally similar
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

18. The concept or idea of “Survival of fittest” was given by
(A) Darwin (B) Herbert Spencer (C) Lamarck (D) Devries

19. Evolution is the best defined by
(A) inheritance of acquired characters (B) struggle for existence
(C) spontaneous generation (D) none of these

20  Which one is not a vestigial organ in man ?
(A) Vermiform appendix (B) Plica seminualris (C) Ear muscles (D) Epiglottis

21. Which one of these is likely to have been absent in free form at the time of origin of life ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Ammonia (D) Methane

22. The famous book “Origin of Species” was written by Charles Darwin in
(A) 1809 (B) 1859 (C) 1885 (D) 1871

23. Charles Darwin toured in a ship for five years it was
(A) Vikrant (B) Phillips (C) Alexander (D) Beagle

24. The term evolution in Biology means that
(A) fossils are old (B) life began in Sea
(C) living things constantly change (D) none of the above

25. The theory of Natural selection of Darwin to explain organic evolution was based on
(A) modification in organs through used and disuse
(B) probability of reproduction, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
(C) Inheritance of acquired characters
(D) appearance of sudden large variations, then inheritance and survival of those having these variations

26. Homologus structures have
(A) similar origin & dissimilar function (B) dissimilar origin but similar function
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

27. Analogous organs are those which are
(A) structurally similar (B) functionally similar
(C) structurally as well as functionally similar (D) normally non-functional

28. The idea of “Survival of fittest” was given by
(A) Darwin (B) Herbert Spencer (C) Lamarck (D) Devries

29. Evolution is the best defined by
(A) inheritance of acquired characters (B)  struggle for existence
(C) spontaneous generation (D).descent by modifications

BY ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF HEREDITY & INHERITANCE CLASS x

HEREDITY & INHERITANCE

CLASS: X

1. When a red flower homozygous pea plant is crossed with a white flower plant what colour is produced in F1 ?

(A) Red (B) White (C) Pink (D) Red and white (E) None of these

2. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of

(A) dihybrid cross (B) monohybrid cross (C) back cross (D) test cross (E) None of these

3. A cross between AaBB X aa BB yields a genotypic ratio of

(A) 1 AaBB : 1 aaBB (B) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB (C) 3AaBB : 1 aa BB (C) All AaBb

4. In monohybrid cross what is the ratio of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individual in F2 - generation ?

(A) 1 : 2 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 / 1 : 2 (C) 3 : 1 / 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 1

5. Back cross is a cross between

(A) F1 × F1 (B) F1 × Recessive (C) F1 × Dominant (D) F1 × any parent

6. A white flowered mirabilis plant rr was crossed with a red coloured RR, if 120 plants are produced in F2 generation. The result would be

(A) 90 uniformly coloured and 30 white (B) 90 Non - uniformly coloured and 30 white

(C) 60 Non-uniformly coloured and 60 white (D) All coloured and No white

7. Which one caries extra nuclear genetic material ?

(A) Plastids (B) Ribosomes (C) Chromosomes (D) Golgi - complex

8. The ratio of phenotype in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is

(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

9. Branch of biology deal s with heredity and variation is called

(A) Palaentology (B) Evolution (C) Genetics (D) Ecology

10. The factors which represent the contrasting pairs of characters are called

(A) Dominant (B) Recessive (C) Determinants (D) Alleles

11. The main aim of plant breeding is

(A) to produce improved varieties (B) to make soil fertile

(C) to control pollution (D) to become more progressive

12. Plants having similar genotypes produced by plant breeding are called

(A) clone (B) haploid (C) autopolyploid (D) genome

13. Two allelic genes are located on

(A) the same chromosome (B) two homologous chromosomes

(C) two non-homologus chromosomes (D) any two chromosomes

14. Mendel’s law of segregation is based on separation of allels during

(A) gamete formation (B) seed formation (C) pollination (D) embryonic development (E) None of these

15. What is the effect of sexual reproduction ?

(A) Offspring is weak (B) Offspring is like the parent (C) Offspring is more vigorous (D) Offspring is diseased

16. Disease resistant varieties can be produced by

(A) crossing a plant with wild variety (B) treating with colchicine

(C) crossing with hormones (D) treating with low temperature

17. Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with dwarf plants, what will be the ratio of dwarf plants in the progeny

(A) 50% (B) 25% (C) 75% (D) 100%

18. A pure tall plant can be differentiated from a hybrid tall plant

(A) by measuring length of plant

(B) by spraying gibberellins

(C) if all plants are tall after self-pollination

(D) if all plants are dwarf after self-pollination

19. Allel is the

(A) alternate trait of a gene pair (B) total number of genes for a trait

(C) total number of chromosomes of haploid set (D) total number of genes present a chromosome

20. In animals sex determination is due to

(A) X-chromosome (B) Y - chromosome (C) A - chromosome (D) B - chromosome

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF CONTROL & CO-ORDINATION CLASS X

CONTROL &  CO-ORDINATION

CLASS: X

1. Phytohormones are
(A) hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
(B) hormones regulating secondary growth
(C) growth regulators synthesized by plants and influencing physiological processes
(D) hormones regulating flowering.

2. The natural plant hormones were first isolated from
(A) cotton fruits, spinach leaves, rice plant (B) avena coleoptiles, fungus gibberella
(C) corn germ oil, human urine (D) human urine, rice plant.

3. If the tip of a seeding is cut off, growth as well as bending ceases because it hampers
(A) perception of light stimulus (B) transpiration
(C) respiration (D) photosynthesis.

4. A plant bends towards the source of light when exposed to the light on only one side. Which of the
following is the best explanation of the phenomena ?
(A) It needs light for photosynthesis
(B) The apices of their stems are attracted by light
(C) Some auxin accumulates on the shaded side to induce greater cell elongation on that side
(D) Light stimulates the cells on the illuminated side to increase in length

5. The movement of plant organs in response to the force of gravity is called
(A) hydrotropism (B) geotropism (C) heliotropism (D) phototropism

6. A high concentration of synthetic auxins is generally used for
(A) wee control (B) preventing the growth of the lateral buds.
(C) controlling of cell enlargement (D) enhancing root initiation

7. Gibberellic acid has been  employed to induce flowering
(A) long day conditions for  short day plants   (B) for some plants
(C) short day conditions for  in long day plants  (D) none of these

8. Cytokinins are known to
(A) inhibit cytoplamic movement (C) help in retention of chlorophyll
(C) influence water movement (D) promote abscission layer formation

9. Ethylene is a
(A) solid hormone (B) gaseous enzyme (C) gaseous hormone (D) liquid gas mixture

10. Pineapple an be made to flower if off season by
(A) zeatin (B) ethylene (C) temperature (D) short days

11. The effect of daily light period on flowering is called
(A) photooxidation (B) phototropism (C) photoperiodism (D) photorespiration

12. Brain stem is formed by the union of
(A) optic lobes (B) cerebellum with optic lobes
(C) corpora striate (D) mid brain, ponsvarolli and medulla oblongata

13. Number of spinal nerves in man are
(A) 11 pairs (B) 13 pairs (C) 6 pairs (D) 31 pairs

14. Third ventricle occurs in
(A) cerebrum (B) cerebellum (C) medulla oblongata  (D)  All of these  (E) none of these

15. The pineal body is considered as
(A) an endocrine gland (B) an organ concerned with voluntary actions
(C) an organ concerned with vision (D) a vestige of third eye and endocrine gland

16. Part of brain involved in interpretation, storage of information and initiation of response on the basis of
past experience is
(A) motor area (B) cerebellum (C) sensory area (D) association area

17. Autonomic nervous system controls
(A) reflex action (B) sense organs (C) internal organs (D) skeletal muscle

18. The study of nervous system and its disorders is called
(A) neurogenesis (B) hematology (C) neuroglia (D) neurology

19. The sensation of sight in human brain is perceived by
(A) optic lobe (B) occipital lobe (C) frontal lobe (D) parietal lobe

BY
ARANBIR SINGH

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MCQ OF LIFE PROCESS CLASS 10

LIFE PROCESS 

CLASS: 10th

1. The raw materials for photosynthesis are
(A) CO2 & O2  (B) sunlight and CO2   (C) water and chlorophyll   (D) CO2 and water.

2. Most of the photosynthesis (80%) which takes place on this earth is carried out by
(A) green plants on land     (B) algae found in ocean
(C)  algae present in fresh water (D) algae present in ocean and fresh water sources (E). none of thes

3. Which of the following ahs no digestive enzyme ?
(A) Saliva   (B) Bile   (C) Gastric juice   (D) Intestinal juice

4. Plants are green in colour because
(A) they absorb green light but reflect all other lights      (B) they reflect green light
(C)  they absorb green light only     (D) none of the above are correct.

5. Full name of NADP is
(A) Nicotinamide dinucleotide phosphate    (B) Nicotine adenine dinuceotide phosphate
(C) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate   (D) None of the above

6. Wavelength of visible light is
(A) 200 - 400 nm   (B) 400 - 700 nm   (C) 700 - 900 nm   (D) 100 - 200 nm

7. The presence of sugar in onion leaves can be tested with
(A) iodine (B) copper sulphate solution
(C) lime water (D) benedict’s solution

8. Chemical reaction takes place during dark reaction of photosynthesis is
(A) photolysis   (B) hydrolysis
(C) carbon dioxide is bonded with RUBP   (D) nitrogen fixation

9. Dark reaction and light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in
(A) stroma and grana of chloroplast respectively   (B) grana and stroma of chloroplast respectively
(C) grana only   (D) stroma only

10. CO2 acceptor during dark reaction of photosynthesis is
(A) RUBP    (B) PEP   (C) NADPH   (D) ATP

11. Compensation point refers to the intensity of light at which
(A) Rate of respiration = rate of photosynthesis   (B) Rate of respiration > rate of photosynthesis
(C) Rate of respiration < Rate of photosynthesis   (D) None of the above is correct

12. Among the following which is a parasitic plant ?
(A) Plasmodium   (B) Cuscuta   (C) Amoeba   (D) Rhizobium

13. The nutrition in mucor is
(A) parasitic (B) autotrophic (C) saprophytic (D) holozoic

14. In amoeba the digestion is intracellular because
(A) amoeba is unicellular   (B) amoeba is multicellular
(C) amoeba is found is pond   (D) amoeba is microscopic animal

15. Digestion of food in human starts from
(A) duodenum (B) small intestine (C) mouth (D) large intestine

16.  Food  completed  digest in the
(A) ileum (B) duodenum (C) stomach (D) large intestine

17. The most important function of villi in the small intestine is
(A) to provide strength to the intestine
(B) to provide space for capillaries and lacteals
(C) to provide increased surface area for absorption of digested food
(D) to provide habitat for bacteria

18. Which of the following sections does not contain enzymes ?
(A) Bile (B) Pancreatic juice (C) Intestinal juice (D) Saliva

19. Chewing is an example of
(A) chemical digestion (B) mechanical digestion (C) involuntary action (D) hydrolysis

20. The final product of digestion of carbohydrates and proteins are
(A) glycerol and amino acid respectively (B) glucose and amino acids respectively
(C) amino acids and glycerol respectively (D) amino acids and glucose respectively

21. In amoeba the digestion of food is
(A) extracellular (B) intracellular (C) intercellular (D) none of the above

22. Through mastication of food is essential because
(A) mastication of food makes the teeth stronger
(B) it makes the process of swallowing the food easier
(C) by this process bigger pieces of food are broken down into smaller pieces.
(D) bigger pieces of food are broken down into smaller pieces and saliva is properly mixed with it

23. The wave of contractions that pushes the food through the alimentary canal is called
(A) peritoneum (B) peristalsis (C) cyclosis (D) polarisation

24. In amoeba absorption of the digested nutrients occurs in
(A) contractile vacuole (B) plasma membrane (C) cytoplasm (D) pseudopodia

25. Coiled and well developed alimentary canal first developed in
(A) Protozoans (B) Mammals (C) Arthropods (D) Poriferans

26. Digestion of starch starts from
(A) stomach (B) intestine (C) oesophagus (D) mouth

27. The path taken by food material after ingestion is represented by
(A) Mouth  =>  Pharynx  => Oesophagus => Stomach
(B) Mouth  => Pharynx  => Oesophagus  => Small Intestine
(C) Mouth => Oesophagus  => Stomach  => Pharynx
(D) Oesophagus  => Mouth => Pharynx => Stomach

28. Teeth involved in cutting of food material are called
(A) canines (B) incisors (C) molars (D) premolars

29. Ptyalin enzyme is secreted by
(A) salivary glands (B) mouth (C) oesophagus (D) stomach (E) none of these

30. Villi are present on
(A) stomach (B) large intestine (C) small intestine (D) mouth (E) none of these


31) Which colour is not absorbed by Chlorophyll
a)Red  b) Blue  c) Blue & Red   d) Green

32) Light reaction takes place in _________ of chlorophyll.
a) Thylokoids  b) Grana  c) Both a) and b)   d) Do not take place in Chlorophyll

33) Ptylin helps in the digestion of __________
a) Proteins b) Fats c) Carbohydrates d) Cellulose

34) The enzyme which is secreted in excess in infants is_____
a) Pepsin b) Renin c) Amylase d) Lypase

35) Pepsin acts in which medium?
a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Neutral d) all of the following

36) The end product of carbohydrate digestion is:
a) Maltose b) Sucrose c) Glucose d) Lactose

37) Appendix in humans is:
a) Vestigial b) Stores Bile c) digest vegetables c) Secrete Pepsin

38) Saliva acts in which medium?
a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Neutral d) all of the following

39) _________ are required for the body building.
a) Proteins b) Fats c) Carbohydrates d) None

40) Gall Bladder:
a) Secretes Bile b) Stores Bile c) Digest HCl c) Secrete Pepsin

41) The phenomenon of breaking of water in the chloroplast in the presence of sunlight
during the light reaction is;
a) Photolysis b) Digestion c) Prolysis d) Phyrolysis

42)___________ energy of the food is utilized by the living organisms.
a) Potential b) Mechanical c) Chemical d) None

43) Enzymes are:
a) Proteins b) Fats c) Carbohydrates d) None

44) The mode of nutrition in plasmodium, which is responsible for casing malaria is:
a) Saprophytic nutrition b) Parasitic nutrition.
c) Holozoic Nutrition d) All of the above

45) The largest gland of human body is:
a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Salivary glands d) None
46. Osmosis is the movement of :
(A) solute particles from higher concentration to lower concentration
(B) solvent particles from higher water potential to lower water potential through a semi permeable
membrane
(C) solute particles from higher concentration to lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane
(D) solvent particles from lower water potential to higher water potential.

47. The ultimate cause for the movement of water against the gravity in a tree is
(A) osmosis (B) transpiration (C) imbibitions (D) photosynthesis

48. Which one of the following is connected with transport of water in plants ?
(A) Phloem (B) Xylem (C) Epidermis (D) Cambium

49. Which of the following contributes most to transport of water from the ground to the leaves of a tall tree ?
(A) Breakdown of ATP (B) Capillary rise of water is xylem
(C) Cohesion of water and transpiration pull (D) Root pressure.

50. The process of transpiration in plants helps in
(A) opening of stomata (B) absorption of Carbondioxide from atmosphere
(C) upward conduction of water and minerals (D) absorption of Oxygen gas from atmosphere

51. Opening and closing of stomata is due to
(A) pressure of gases inside the leaves (B) changes of turgor pressure in guard cells
(C) effect of hormones (D) their genetic constitution

52. The carbohydrates synthesized in the leaves are transported through sieve tubes most commonly in the
form of
(A) glucose (B) starch (C) sucrose (D) cellulose

53. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely enclosed with in
(A) sinuses (B) vessels (C) heart (D) skeleton

54. An artery is a vessel that carries blood
(A) with high concentration of oxygen (B) with high concentration of CO2
(C) away from the heart (D) both A & C

55. Values are found in veins to check the backflow of blood flowing under
(A) low pressure (B) high pressure (C) no pressure (D) atmospheric pressure.

56. Water will be absorbed by root hair when
(A) concentration of solutes in the cells sap in high
(B) plant in rapidly respiring
(C) they are separated from soil by a permeable membrane
(D) concentration of salts in the soil in high.

57. Root cap has no role in water absorption because
(A) it has no direct connection with the vascular system
(B) it has no cells containing chloroplasts
(C) it has no root hairs
(D) it has loosely arranged cells.

58. Which of the following is used in measuring transpiration ?
(A) Photometer (B) Cobalt chloride paper (C) Bell - jar (D) None of the above

59. Translocation of solutes primarily takes place through
(A) phloem (B) xylem (C) cortex (D) pith.

60. A mature human erythrocyte has the typical characteristic of
(A) a eukaryotic cell (B) a prokaryotic cell
(C) both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell (D) neither eukaryotic nor prokaryotic cell

61. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood will
(A) result in clotting (B) prevent clotting
(C) prevent oxidation of hemoglobin (D) cause hemolysis

62. In the cardiac cycle, diastole is
(A) the number of heart beats per minute
(B) the relaxation period after contraction of the heart
(C) the forceful pumping action of the heart
(D) the contraction period after relaxation of the heart.

63. One of the difference between blood and lymph is that
(A) blood has RBCs and WBCs while lymph has Lymphocytes.
(B) blood has RBCs while lymph has no WBCs
(C) blood has WBCs while lymph has RBCs
(D) blood has dissolved organic salts while lymph has no such inorganic salt.

64. Blood vessel carrying blood from lung to heart through
(A) Pulmonary artery (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Coronary artery (D) None of these.
Which of the following parts of a kidney contains the lowest concentration of urea ?
(A) Lop of Henle (B) Branches of renal vein
(C) Bowman’s capsule (D) Glomerulus

65. Uriniferous tubules of a kidney are concerned with formation of
(A) glucose (B) amino acids (C) hormones (D) urine

66. Excretion is removal of
(A) CO2 (B) harmful and useless ingredients
(C) extra water (D) metabolic wastes

67. Main function of kidney is
(A) passive absorption (B) ultrafiltration
(C) selective reabsorption (D) Both B and C

68. Ammonia is converted into urea in
(A) kidney (B) spleen (C) liver (D) nephron

69. Function of loop of Henle is
(A) conservation of water (B) formation of urine
(C) filtration of blood (D) passage of urine

70. Urea is transported through
(A) RBCs (B) WBCs (C) Plasma (D) All of the above

71. Major function of contractive vacuole is
(A) excretion (B) circulation (C) osmoregulation (D) all the above

72. Which one is a accessory excretory organ
(A) Liver (B) Stomach (C) Intestine (D) Heart
The process of respiration is concerned with
(A) liberation of oxygen (B) liberation of carbon dioxide
(C) liberation of energy (D) intake of oxygen

73. The common immediate source of energy for cellular activity is
(A) NAD (B) ATP (C) DNA (D) RNA

74. The tissue respiration refers to
(A) inspiration (B) external respiration (C) internal respiration (D) expiration

75. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the rate of breathing will
(A) decrease (B) stop (C) increase (D) have no effect

76. The phenomenanon of uptake of water at the expense of energy by the cells and usually against the osmotic gradient is known as
(A) active absorption (B) passive absorption (C) osmosis (D) diffusion

77. Vocal cards occur in
(A) pharynx (B) glottis (C) bronchial tube (D) larynx

78. In man, which of the following structures is analogous to the spiracles of cockroach ?
(A) Alveoli (B) Lungs (C) Bronchioles (D) Nostrils

79. Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea ?
(A) Diaphragm (B) Ribs (C) Cartilaginous ring (D) Muscles


80. Which of the following gases makes the most stable combination with the hemoglobin of red blood cells.
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) O2 (D) N2

81. Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is called
(A) tidal volume (B) inspiratory capacity
(C) total lung capacity (D) residual volume

82. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried in the form of
(A) carbonic acid (B) bicarbonates
(C) carbaminohaemoglobin (D) dissolved CO2
Breathing rate in mammals in controlled by a part of the brain called the
(A) thalamus (B) hypothalamus (C) medulla oblongata (D) cerebellum

83. In anaerobic respiration
(A) O2 is taken in (B) CO2 is taken in (C) O2 is given out (D) CO2 is given out

84. Disease called pleurisy is due to
(A) inflammation of pleura (B) inflammation of trachea
(C) inflammation of alveoli (D) none of these above

85. Leaves respire with the help of
(A) lenticles (B) stomata (C) plasmodesmata (D) cuticle
86. Correct statement is
(A) roots of plant respire through lenticles and stomata.
(B) stem of plant respire through lenticles
(C) both A and B are correct
(D) both A and B are incorrect

87.Which of the following is not a characteristic of good respiratory surface ?
(A) Thin and moist (B) Large surface area
(C) Close to oxygen and gas transport (D) Thick and dry surface

88. Respiration in yeast
(A) takes place in the presence of oxygen (B) yields lactic acid and carbon dioxide
(C) in anaerobic and produces carbon dioxide (D) takes place only in darkness

89. Muscle cells engaged in vigorous activity build up a high concentration of
(A) lactic acid (B) pyruvic acid (C) alcohol (D) cholesterol

90. Exchange of respiratory gases takes place in an earthworm through
(A) moist skin (B) gills (C) trachea (D) lungs

91. Oxygen is transported in blood mainly by
(A) leucocytes (B) erythrocytes (C) thrombocytes (D) blood plasma

BY
 ARANBIR SINGH

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